Professional Experts Revised Oracle 1Z0-434 Exam Questions And Answers

1Z0-434 exam

Exam Number: 1Z0-434
Associated Certifications: Oracle SOA Suite 12c Certified Implementation Specialist
format: Multiple-Choice
Number of Questions: 78                                                      
Duration: 120
Passing Score: 73%
Exam Product Version: SOA Suite
Exam Topics:

  • Explain basic SOA concepts and how they map to implementations
  • Describe the components and architecture of SOA Suite
  • Describe SOA Suite’s role in cloud integration and mobile applications
  • Use the right components to implement common integration patterns
  • Analyze XPath expressions to retrieve elements in an XML document
  • Describe Oracle’s SOA governance capabilities
  • Describe how B2B capabilities enable trading partner relationships
  • Describe the main features of the Enterprise Scheduler Service (ESS)

BPEL Modeling

  • Use the BPEL Editor to create synchronous and asynchronous processes
  • Use WSDL partner link types and BPEL partner link elements to interact with services
  • Use the assign activity to manipulate data in BPEL variables
  • Model conditional branching, looping, and parallel processing
  • Implement exception handling, compensating transactions and correlation
  • Create and configure BPEL and composite sensors
  • Use the BPEL Debugger


  • Describe the role adapters play in a SOA composite application
  • Describe the adapter architecture
  • Use the file, database, and JMS adapters
  • Configure adapters at design-time and run-time
  • Describe cloud-related adapters

Business Rules

  • Create if/then rules with Rules Designer
  • Create decision table rules with Rules Designer
  • Integrate a rule into a BPEL process
  • Describe how rules are used with mediator and human task components

Human Task Services

  • Design a human task
  • Invoke a human task from a BPEL process
  • Generate Application Development Framework (ADF) task forms for human tasks
  • Interact with the Worklist application to act on tasks

Service Mediation

  • Differentiate between when to use Mediator and Service Bus
  • Explain the role of Service Bus and the benefits it provides
  • Create and configure Service Bus proxies, pipelines, and business services
  • Use throttling, endpoint management, and caching to scale business services in Service Bus
  • Configure a service as RESTful and access it using the REST approach

Event Processing

  • Explain event-driven architecture and the support provided by Event Delivery Network (EDN)
  • Use components to publish and consume events
  • Explain Complex Event Processing (CEP) and how it is supported by Oracle Event Processing (OEP)
  • Explain Event Processing Network (EPN) and how it relates to OEP
  • Explain how various OEP CQL data cartridges enhance the capabilities of the CQL engine

Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)

  • Describe the role of BAM
  • Use activity monitors, counters, business indicators and interval monitoring objects
  • Create alert rules to launch alerts
  • Build an executive dashboard

Securing Services

  • Describe the role and features of Oracle Web Service Manager (OWSM)
  • Describe identity propagation
  • Attach security policies to end points at design-time and run-time

Deployment and Troubleshooting

  • Deploy and undeploy components to SOA Suite
  • Discuss the role Maven and Hudson play
  • Create test cases to initiate inbound messages and to emulate outbound, fault and callback messages
  • Monitor components deployed to SOA Suite
  • Describe how SOA Suite applications scale to large-scale production
  • Troubleshoot a deployed SOA Suite application

Installation and Configuration

  • Install and configure SOA Suite
  • Upgrade a production application from SOA Suite 11g
  • Install and configure Oracle Event Processing (OEP)

You have taken your primary metadata controller offline in order to update its Xsan file system. The secondary metadata controller is now the active controller of your Xsan volume.
After bringing your primary controller back online, how will you force it to resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume?
A. Do nothing: the primary controller will automatically resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume once it is online.
B. Use cvadmin to manually fail the volume on the active controller. This will cause the primary controller to resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.
C. In Xsan Admin’s Computers pane, set the primary controller’s priority to High. Upon restarting the computer, it will resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.
D. In Xsan Admin’s Computers pane, set the primary controller’s priority to High. Upon clicking the Save button, it will resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.

Correct Answer: B
When a client accesses files on an Xsan volume, what data is transferred from the volume to the client across the Fibre Channel network?
A. file contents
B. permissions
C. volume metadata
D. access control lists

Correct Answer: A   400-101 exam
When the metadata controller starts up, which TWO pieces of information will each fsm daemon register with the fsmpm daemon?
A. volume name
B. failover priority
C. port access number
D. metadata MAC address
E. World Wide Node Name (WWNN)

Correct Answer: AC
When a user saves a file to an Xsan volume, how does the Xsan file system handle the file’s data?
A. Xsan mirrors the data to a metadata LUN.
B. Xsan stripes the data across LUNs in its storage pools.
C. Xsan synchronizes data copy between all RAID controllers.
D. Xsan divides the data files between the client’s host bus adapter (HBA) links.
E. Xsan creates a temporary directory on the client’s local file system to translate and transfer data to the Xsan volume.
Correct Answer: B
What port settings should you use when configuring a QLogic switch for your Xsan volume?
A. I/O Stream Guard disabled on host machine ports and on storage device ports.
B. I/O Stream Guard enabled on host machine ports and on storage device ports.
C. I/O Stream Guard disabled on host machine ports, and enabled on storage device ports.
D. I/O Stream Guard enabled on host machine ports, and disabled on storage device ports.
Correct Answer: D

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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named All domain controllers run
Windows Server 2012 R2.
DirectAccess is deployed to the network.
Remote users connect to the DirectAccess server by using a variety of network speeds.

The remote users report that sometimes their connection is very slow.
You need to minimize Group Policy processing across all wireless wide area network (WWAN)

Which Group Policy setting should you configure?

A. Configure Direct Access connections as a fast network connection.
B. Change Group Policy processing to run asynchronously when a slow network connection is detected.
C. Configure Group Policy slow link detection.
D. Configure wireless policy processing. Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyPropertiesHttpPort 80.
E. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration. Correct Answer: CE

* To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm..

Enable seamless second factor authentication Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources. To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.
Your network contains two servers named Server 1 and Server 2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both
servers have the Hyper-V server role installed. Server 1 and Server 2 are located in different offices. The
offices connect to each other by using a high-latency WAN link.

Server 1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server 2 if Server 1 fails. The solution must minimize
hardware costs.
What should you do?

A. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server2, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication for VM1.
B. on Server 1, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
C. on Server2, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
D. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server1, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication for Vml.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 200-125 vce
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1. You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account. How should you configure Service1?
A. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the Log On settings.
D. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the privs parameter.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Your company deploys a new Active Directory forest named The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains a domain controller named DC10.
On DC10, the disk that contains the SYSVOL folder fails.
You replace the failed disk. You stop the Distributed File System (DFS) Replication service. You restore the SYSVOL folder.
You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10.
Which tool should you use before you start the DFS Replication service on DC10?
A. Active Directory Sites and Services
B. Ultrasound
C. Adsiedit.msc
D. Frsutil

Correct Answer: C Explanation
How to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of DFSR-replicated SYSVOL (like “D2″ for FRS)
1. In theADSIEDIT.MSC tool modify the following distinguished name (DN) value and attribute on each of the domain controllers that you want to make non-authoritative:
CN=SYSVOL Subscription,CN=Domain System Volume,CN=DFSR- LocalSettings,CN=<the server name>,OU=Domain Controllers,DC=<domain>
2. Force Active Directory replication throughout the domain. Etc
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The domain contains a server named Server 1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StoragePool
B. Diskpart
C. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
D. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk

Correct Answer: B Explanation
You can create a VHD from either the Disk Management snap-in or the command line (diskpart). From the DiskPart command-line tool at an elevated command prompt, run the create vdisk command and specify the file (to name the file) and maximum (to set the maximum size in megabytes) parameters. The following code demonstrates how to create a VHD file at C:\vdisks\disk1.vdh with a maximum file size of 16 GB (or 16,000 MB). DiskPart Microsoft DiskPart version 6.1.7100 Copyright (C) 1999-2008 Microsoft Corporation. On computer: WIN7 DISKPART> create vdisk file=”C:\vdisks\disk1.vhd” maximum=16000
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?

A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
C. Delete partition E.
D. Take Disk 1 offline. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: NB: added the missing exhibit v.aspx Passthrough Disk Configuration Hyper-V allows virtual machines to access storage mapped directly to the Hyper-V server without requiring the volume be configured. The storage can either be a physical disk internal to the Hyper-V server or it can be a Storage Area Network (SAN) Logical Unit (LUN) mapped to the Hyper-V server. To ensure the Guest has exclusive access to the storage, it must be placed in an Offline state from the Hyper-V server perspective. Additionally, this raw piece of storage is not limited in size so, hypothetically, it can be a multi terabyte LUN.
After storage is mapped to the Hyper-V server, it will appear as a raw volume and will be in an Offline state (depending on the SAN Policy (Figure 1-1)) as seen in Figure 1.

We stated earlier that a disk must be Offline from the Hyper-V servers’ perspective in order for the Guest to have exclusive access. However, a raw volume must first be initialized before it can be used. To accomplish this in the Disk Management interface, the disk must first be brought Online. Once Online, the disk will show as being Not Initialized (Figure 2).

Right-click on the disk and select Initialize Disk (Figure 3)

Select either an MBR or GPT partition type (Figure 4).

Once a disk is initialized, it can once again be placed in an Offline state. If the disk is not in an Offline state, it will not be available for selection when configuring the Guest’s storage. In order to configure a Pass-through disk in a Guest, you must select Attach a virtual disk later in the New Virtual Machine Wizard (Figure 5).

If the Pass-through disk will be used to boot the operating system, it must be attached to an IDE Controller. Data disks can take advantage of SCSI controllers. In Figure 6, a Passthrough disk is attached to IDE Controller 0.

Note: If the disk does not appear in the drop down list, ensure the disk is Offline in the Disk Management interface (In Server CORE, use the diskpart.exe CLI). Once the Pass-through disk is configured, the Guest can be started and data can placed on the drive. If an operating system will be installed, the installation process will properly prepare the disk. If the disk will be used for data storage, it must be prepared in the Guest operating system before data can be placed on it. If a Pass- through disk, being used to support an operating system installation, is brought Online before the Guest is started, the Guest will fail to start. When using Pass-through disks to support an operating system installation, provisions must be made for storing the Guest configuration file in an alternate location. This is because the entire Pass-through disk is consumed by the operating system installation. An example would be to locate the configuration file on another internal drive in the Hyper-V server itself. Or, if it is a cluster, the configuration file can be hosted on a separate cluster providing highly available file services. Be aware that Pass-through disks cannot be dynamically expanded. Additionally, when using Pass-through disks, you lose the capability to take snapshots, and finally, you cannot use differencing disks with Pass-through disks.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1.
VM1 has a legacy network adapter.
You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.
C. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Add a New network adapter because the legacy network adapter doesn’t support bandwidth management.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The domain contains a member server named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Host1 hosts two virtual machines named VM5 and VM6. Both virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Virtual1.
On VM5, you install a network monitoring application named Monitor1. You need to capture all of the inbound and outbound traffic to VM6 by using Monitor1.
Which two commands should you run from Windows PowerShell? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter-IovWeight 1
B. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 0
C. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Source
D. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On
E. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Destination
F. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
-PortMirroring specifies the port mirroring mode for the network adapter. This can be set to None, Source, and Destination.
If set to Source, a copy of every network packet it sends or receives is forwarded to a virtual network adapter configured to receive the packets.

If set to Destination, it receives copied packets from the source virtual network adapter.
In this scenario, VM5 is the destination which must receive a copy of the network packets from VM6, which s the source.

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  1. Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking
  2. Secure resources
  3. Design an application storage and data access strategy
  4. Design an advanced application
  5. Design websites
  6. Design a management, monitoring, and business continuity strategy

Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)

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You are configuring your Mac OS X computer to authenticate at the login window through an LDAP server. Which Open Directory user attribute are you NOT required to map to an LDAP user attribute?
A. UniqueID
B. MCXFlags
C. RealName
D. RecordName

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
You are configuring Mac OS X client computers to access user records in a third-party directory. Without modifying the schema on the third-party directory, how can you provide valid mount records for network home folders?
A. Create a mount record in the local LDAP directory on the Mac OS X client.
B. Use Directory Access to map VFSType to apple-user-homeurl on each client computer.
C. Use the Active Directory schema rather than the RFC 2307 schema on the LDAP directory.
D. Supplement the third-party directory with a directory on Mac OS X Server to host the mount records.

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Your Mac OS X Server LDAP server provides LDAP mappings via DHCP. How can clients obtain the schema mappings for your server?
A. The mappings are delivered as part of the DHCP OFFER packet.
B. Clients request the schema mappings via the MetaDirectory protocol.
C. Clients install the schema files at /etc/openldap/schema on the client computer.
D. Clients query the LDAP server for the mapping configuration entry at cn=macosxodconfig,cn=config.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
An administrator assigns a computer with Mac OS X Server v10.4 to the role of Open Directory replica. What information will the administrator NOT be prompted to provide about the Open Directory master being replicated?
A. IP address of the master
B. MAC address of the master
C. root password for the master
D. LDAP directory administrator user name on the master

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Chris is logged into a Mac OS X computer using a non-admin network user account provided by Mac OS X Server v10.4. The user account is configured to use an Open Directory password. When Chris tries to connect to an AFP server that is configured to use only Kerberos authentication, an uthenticate to Kerberos dialog appears, requesting a name, realm, and password.
Chris enters the user account name and password again, and clicks OK. The same dialog reappears.
What can a local system administrator do to resolve Chris issue?
A. Tell Chris to log on to the client computer with a secure shadow hash.
B. Enable the Kerberosv5 plug-in in Directory Access on the client computer.
C. Use kdestroy to destroy any existing tickets in the cache on the client computer.
D. Ensure that the date, time, and time zone on the Mac OS X client and on the key distribution center (KDC) are synchronized.
E. Tell Chris to cancel the uthenticate to Kerberos dialog, connect to the AFP server as guest, and assume the connection is secure.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
In a default configuration, what LDAP user name do clients enter in Directory Access to perform LDAP queries on Mac OS X Server Open Directory?
A. ldap
B. admin
C. cn=ldap,dc=example,dc=com
D. cn=admin,dc=example,dc=com
E. Nonehe default configuration allows anonymous binding.

Correct Answer: E
Which is a valid concern when using the Archive feature in Open Directory services on Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. The archive does not include the local NetInfo database or configuration files.
B. The archive contains all of the account passwords and should not be left unsecured.
C. You cannot archive a copy of the Open Directory data while the Open Directory master is in service.
D. Kerberos must be reconfigured after restoring from an archive, because the archive does not include Kerberos data.

Correct Answer: B
You are troubleshooting an Open Directory LDAP server. Which step will allow you to gather troubleshooting information from the server?
A. Start slapd with the flag -d 99.
B. Turn on verbose logging in Server Admin.
C. Start DirectoryServices with the flag -debug.
D. Edit /etc/hostconfig to contain LDAPARGS=’-d’.

Correct Answer: A

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A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.

Answer: D

400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)
A. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
B. It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP.
C. It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
D. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
E. It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.

Answer: DE


VPLS relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information. Therefore, flooding cannot be prevented. VPLS can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance. To multiplex multiple VLANs on a single instance, VPLS uses IEEE QinQ.

400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Which two statements describe characteristics of HDLC on Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
A. It supports multiple Layer 3 protocols.
B. It supports multiplexing.
C. It supports only synchronous interfaces.
D. It supports authentication.

Answer : A,C 


400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Which statement describes the BGP add-path feature?

A. It allows for installing multiple IBGP and EBGP routes in the routing table.
B. It allows a network engineer to override the selected BGP path with an additional path created in the config.
C. It allows BGP to provide backup paths to the routing table for quicker convergence.
D. It allows multiple paths for the same prefix to be advertised.

Answer : D    200-101 exam


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Question: 18
Which two functions are performed by the DR in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The DR originates the network LSA on behalf of the network.
B. The DR is responsible for the flooding throughout one OSPF area.
C. The DR forms adjacencies with all other OSPF routers on the network, in order to synchronize the LSDB across the adjacencies.
D. The DR is responsible for originating the type 4 LSAs into one area.

Answer : A,C

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The Newest Cisco 200-120 dumps! As we know,only valid and newest Cisco 200-120 vce can help you a lot in passing the exam. Just try Cisco 200-120 latest vce and pdf, which are authenticated by expert and covering every aspect of Cisco 200-120 vce.100% money back guarantee!

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 2


Correct Answer:
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C  200-125 vce

200-101 exam
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?

C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

A. abcd.1123.0045
C. aabb.5555.2222

E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. bridge
B. hub C. NIC
D. router
E. switch
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?


Correct Answer: E

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Significance of Cisco 200-105 Exam For Cisco

Significance of Cisco 200-105 Certification Exam is a guaranteed way to advance function in the IT market. Whether you perform for a business, a small company, medical care, government or any other place that utilizes IT experts, your best bet for a better job is to confirm your knowledge and abilities through a properly selected combination of 200-105 dumps. However, certification can get costly. Aspect in research components, training and sessions, examination charges, and the time that you dedicate to the whole experience; it all contributes up. If you consider 200-105 CCNA Routing and Switching/CCNA certification as an investment in your future and career, then would not you want to work to acquire those that will benefit you the most.

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Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Unilateral collateral obligations to sovereign counterparties provide liquidity to banks.
B. Under Basel III commercial banks are most likely to incur lower costs to service their sovereign clients.
C. While banks usually do not call for collateral from sovereign counterparties, they must provide collateral for the offsetting hedge transactions which are undertaken with commercial counterparties.
D. Uncollateralised exposures to sovereign counterparties will not require additional regulatory capital to be set aside against potential credit losses

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Which one of the following statements about interest rate movements is true?
A. An upward parallel shift of interest rates will cause a loss of income if the rate-sensitivity of a bank’s liabilities is higher than the rate-sensitivity of its assets.
B. A bank will lose income if it has more rate-sensitive liabilities than rate-sensitive assets.
C. Falling interest rates will always result in mark-to-market profits on short positions in fixed rate securities.
D. Rising interest rates can result in mark-to-market losses on fixed-rate assets.

Correct Answer: D
Under Basel rules, what is the meaning of EEPE?
A. Effective Expected Potential Exposure
B. Effective Expected Positive Exposure
C. Effective Expected Price Earning
D. Effective Expected Payment Exposure

Correct Answer: B
The major risk to the effectiveness of netting is:
A. Credit risk
B. Settlement risk
C. Liquidity risk
D. Legal risk

Correct Answer: D   200-125 vce
Which of the following methods is a means of credit risk mitigation?
A. entering into a plain vanilla IRS
B. entering into collateral agreements
C. hedging a portfolio’s USD exposure
D. investing only in sizeable and liquid markets
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following scenarios offer an example of wrong way risk?
A. A bank purchases credit protection on highly-rated tranches of US mortgage-backed securities from a US mortgage bank
B. A bank sells protection on the iTraxx main index at a level of 25 bps and shortly afterwards the index crosses the 200 bps level
C. A bank sells EUR put I USD call ATM options with an expiry date of 6 months and afterwards volatility moves up to substantially higher levels
D. A bank enters into a receiver’s swap while interest rates are increasing
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is typical of liquid assets held by banks under prudential requirements?
A. prices increase during a systemic crisis
B. return on investment is relatively high
C. absence of active market makers
D. wide bid/offer spreads

Correct Answer: A

What is the correct interpretation of a EUR 2,000,000.00 overnight VaR figure with a 97% confidence level?
A. A loss of at least EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 97 out of the next 100 days.
B. A loss of at most EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 3 out of the next 100 days.
C. A loss of at least EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 3 out of the next 100 days.
D. A loss of at most EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 6 out of the next 100 days.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
Hybex Electrics is a highly rated company with a considerable amount of fixed rate liabilities and would like to increase the percentage of floating rate debt. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A. Hybex should become a payer of a fixed rate on a swap against receipt of LIBOR.
B. Hybex should become a receiver of a floating rate on a swap against payment of a fixed rate
C. Hybex should become a receiver of a fixed rate on a swap against payment of LIBOR D.
D. Hybex should become a receiver of a floating rate on a swap against payment of LIBOR

Correct Answer: C

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Which one of the following statements correctly describes the increased capital ratios that will come into effect under Basel III?
A. minimum tier 1 capital of 4.5% and minimum total capital plus a conservation buffer of 10.5%
B. minimum tier 1 capital of 6% and minimum total capital including conservation buffer of 8%
C. minimum tier 1 capital of 4% and minimum total capital including conservation buffer of 10.5%
D. minimum tier 1 capital of 6% and minimum total capital including conservation buffer of 10.5%

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
Responsibility for the activities of all personnel engaged in dealing (both dealers and support staff) for both principals and brokers lies with:
A. the market supervisor
B. the national ACI association
C. the management of such organizations
D. the central bank

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which Greek letter is used to describe the ratio of change in the option price compared with change in the price of the underlying instrument, when all other conditions are fixed?
A. beta
B. gamma
C. delta
D. theta Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
When banks transact FX swaps, the spot price should be determined:
A. anytime after the swap is transacted
B. before the swap is transacted
C. immediately after the swap is transacted
D. no less than 24 hours after the completion of the swap
Correct Answer: C  200-105 pdf

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How to Get Free CCNP SWITCH 300-115 Dumps

Kill4exam now, offers one year associated with free of charge changes to get Cisco 300-115 exam materials. Each of our Cisco 300-115 exam sample questions can help you get professional inside of virtually no time. Whenever you adapt the rapidshare along with Cisco 300-115 questions and answers, you’ll be aware the visible difference.  Cisco 300-115 exam sample questions are ready simply by Industry experts along with Specialists providing you the top road to being successful using swiftest changes in step with Cisco 300-115 vce. Cisco 300-115 Certification is usually attaining significantly magnitude from it industry each day. HRCI authenticates knowing, ability, abilities along with features.

An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.

Correct Answer: C Explanation  1z0-803 exam
Explanation: RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state. Reference:
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled. Reference:

300-115 vce
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation: You can configure the amount of time that an entry (the packet source MAC address and port that packet ingresses) remain in the MAC table. To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task: Command Purpose Step 1 switch# configure Enters configuration mode. terminal Step 2 switch(config)# mac- Specifies the time before an entry ages out address-table aging- and is discarded from the MAC address table. time seconds [vlan The range is from 0 to 1000000; the default is vlan_id] 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified, the aging specification applies to all VLANs. This example shows how to set the aging time for entries in the MAC address table to 600 seconds (10 minutes): switch# configure terminal switch(config)# mac-address-table aging-time 600 Reference:
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Correct Answer: B Explanation
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default,
manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on
the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some
configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff.
This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a
specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for
administrative intervention.
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values.
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template.

The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs.

The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing overflow is sent to the CPU which can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation: A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination. Reference:

300-115 vce
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the other is passive. The table below sum- marizes the results for LACP channel establishment based on the
configuration of each side of a link:

LACP Channel Establishment
S1 S2 Established?
On On Yes
Active/Passive Active Yes
On/Active/Passive Not Configured No
On Active No
Passive/On Passive No
Load balancing can only be configured globally. As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing. This is true for the
switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have non matching parameters for load balancing. Reference:

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What is the Difference between Cisco 200-125 VCE and Cisco 200-120 VCE ?

200-125 vce

Cisco 200-125 VCE Moved from ICND1 to ICND2

For the changes to CCNA R&S announced in May 2016, most of the changes happened in ICND2. As a result, Cisco moved few topics from ICND1 to ICND2. They moved more out of ICND2 over into ICND1. In fact, only two topics of note move from ICND1 to ICND2, and the moves are relatively minor:

First, the OSPF 200-125 VCE move makes sense. Looking at the history of CCNA R&S since 2003, when Cisco introduced the idea of both a 1-exam and 2-exam path to CCNA R&S, Cisco has placed some subject areas that straddle the line between the ICND1 half and the ICND2 half of CCNA. OSPF has straddled that line for the last couple of revisions of CCNA, and now it is squarely in ICND2 only. makes good sense given that Cisco has added RIPv2 to ICND1.

IPv4 ACLs unfortunately still straddles the line between the exams. I can understand some good reasons for keeping some IPv4 ACL content in ICND1 and some in ICND2, but I personally would have chosen to put it all in ICND1. That said, the new ICND1 200-125 vce specifically use the word “standard”, and not “extended”, in the exam topic for IPv4 ACLs, and the ICND2 exam topic pulls in the word “extended”. That’s the big difference.

200-125 vce

Still in ICND2, but Higher Performance Level

Two topics – HSRP and SNMP – get an upgrade in performance level, at least in what’s literally listed in the exam topics. means you get an upgrade in what you need to study for these topics.

In the history of the ICND1, ICND2, and 200-125 exams, Cisco has listed some exam topics using hands-on skill verbs like configure, verify, and troubleshoot. You can think of these three exam topics as a progression, with configuration as the first skill, verification as an additional skill, and troubleshooting as the highest skill.

Looking back to the 2013 edition of these exams, Cisco upgraded a variety of ICND2 exam topics to list the exam topics with all three verbs: configure, verify, and troubleshoot. Here in 2016, there are few of the now-old exam topics that could be upgraded to a higher performance level, because they mostly already included the troubleshoot verb.

However, there are two topics from the old ICND2 200-125 vce that used concept-focused verbs rather than CLI-focused verbs like configure, verify, and troubleshoot. The new 70-243 exam topics are (with references to the old exam topics’ verbs):

4.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot HSRP (the old exam’s exam topic used verb “recognize”)

5.1 Configure and verify SNMPv2/v3 (the old exam’s exam topic used verb “describe”)

Personally, I both like and dislike these changes. I like them because it clears up ambiguity, and treats these topics like most other topics. Just because of personal preference, I dislike the inclusion of SNMP, particularly SNMPv3. SNMPv3 is just a surprisingly difficult feature to configure even at a basic level. SNMPv3 in IOS definitely needs an easy button. Read More Official Information:

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Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?

Correct Answer: BE
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.

Correct Answer: DE    70-487 exam
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones

Correct Answer: AC

810-403 exam
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.

Correct Answer: D
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account? (Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.

Correct Answer: AE
When selling outcomes, which three knowledge areas should sales professionals develop? (Choose three.)
A. Portfolio selling
B. Emerging technology trends
C. Stakeholder management
D. Sales enablement
E. Customer advocacy
F. Cisco partner ecosystem portfolio

Correct Answer: BCD

Which two statements partially describe the difference between product-based and outcome-based sales? (Choose two)
A. In product-based sales the customer knows the issue and is likely to fix it, in outcome-based sales the customer understands the business goal and what success looks like.
B. In product-based sales the customer expects to make product comparisons, in outcome-based sales the customer decides whether to make an investment based on comparing current and future state.
C. In product-based sales the customer may or may not be aware of the opportunity or problem, in outcome-based sales the customer will answer questions to clarify pain points.
D. In product -based sales the customer wants to hear about multiple solutions, in outcome -based sales the customer does not know value or benefit from a change.

Correct Answer: AB
At what three major levels can Cisco and its partners provide outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. strategic level
B. operational level
C. technology innovation level
D. executive level
E. business level

Correct Answer: BCE
Stakeholder audiences cover a range of customers, sales professionals, and others. Which three key position groups make up important stakeholders? (Choose three.)
A. Executives
B. Influencers
C. Employees
D. Decision makers
E. Suppliers

Correct Answer: ACE
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

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