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Exam Code: MB2-707MB2-707 dumps
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration
MB2-707 Actual Test Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2017-02-05
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QUESTION 1
You are adding a Personal Identification Number field to the contact entity.
Users should be able to add data to this field when a contact record is created but should not be able to read or modify it after the contact is created.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Enable field security on the Personal Identification Number field customization.
B. In the users’ Security Role, grant an Organization level Create permission for the Contact entity.
C. In the field security profile for the users, set the Personal Identification Number Create permission to Yes, the Update permission to Yes, and the Read permission to No.
D. In the field security profile for the users, set the Personal Identification Number Create field permission to Yes, the Update permission to No, and the Read permission to No.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 2
All users in your organization share a security role named Contoso Employee. The only current Account form is assigned to that role and is configured as a fallback. The marketing team has an additional security role named Contoso Marketing, and your support team has an additional security role named Contoso Support.
You need to create a new form for the marketing team.
You have the following requirements:
The form must be the only form available to the marketing team. The support team must have access to this new form and the current form.
What should you do?
A. Assign the new form to Contoso Marketing and Contoso Support. Then remove Contoso Employee from the current form, and assign Contoso Support to it
B. Assign the new form to Contoso Support and Contoso Marketing, and remove Contoso Employee from the current form.
C. Assign the new form to the Contoso Marketing secunty role, and configure it as the fallback. Then remove Contoso Employee from the current form.
D. Assign the new form to Contoso Marketing, and configure it as the fallback. Then add Contoso Support to the current form after removing Contoso Employee.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are creating a new business process flow for a custom Event entity.
You create the new process and select business process flow from the Category list but you cannot find the Event entity in the Entity list.
What should you do?
A. Activate the new business process flow to refresh the Entity list
B. Save the new business process flow to refresh the Entity list.
C. Configure the entity to display in the Settings area, and then publish it
D. Configure the entity to enable business process flows, and then publish it
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 4
You are a customer service manager. You create a personal dashboard that contains one system chart
and two personal views.
You need to make this dashboard available to the rest of the organization.
What should you do?

A. Assign a security role to your dashboard, and then assign the security role to the rest of the users or teams in the organization.
B. Convert the personal dashboard to a system dashboard, and then publish it.
C. Share your personal dashboard and the two personal views with the rest of the users or teams in the organization.
D. Add your personal dashboard to a Solution and export it Re-import it as a system dashboard. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You create a new custom entity named Project. It has a lookup to Account.
You create a field that maps from the City field on the Account to the Location field on the Project.
What should a user do to apply the mapping?

A. Create a new Account. From the Account create the new project.
B. Look up an existing Account. From the Account record, add an existing project
C. Create a new Project. Using the Account lookup, select an existing Account.
D. Create a new Project. Using the Account lookup, create a new Account. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to convert a personal chart to a system chart in Microsoft Dynamics CRM? What should you do?
A. Export the chart from the chart pane, and import it into the entity customization chart area.
B. Create a solution that includes the personal chart and import the solution to create the system chart.
C. Go to the entity customization, and recreate the chart as a system chart.
D. Share the chart with all other Dynamics CRM users to convert it to a system chart.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You want to add a drop-down list control on a form to present a fixed list of choices to the user. Which Data Type should you use?
A. Lookup
B. Option Set
C. Picklist
D. Multiple Lines of Text
Correct Answer: B Explanation
200-125 vce QUESTION 8
An Account record has an Option Set named Relationship Type.

You need to ensure that when the Relationship Type is not Customer, the Account Number field does not
display.
What should you do?

A. Use business rules.
B. Create a dialog.
C. Create a real-time workflow.
D. Configure the business process flow. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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Being Successful In Pass New Release Cisco 300-320 Exam Certification

Total Questions: 283
Test Number: 300-320
Vendor Name: Cisco
Cert Name:  CCDP
Test Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
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Question: 1              

An organization is designing the IP allocation of a new site. It currently has 12 separate IP segments. Each segment must be /24, accommodate 25% of growth, and be easily summarized.

Which summarized IP block can be subnetted to meet these requirements?

  1. /18
  2. /19
  3. /20
  4. /21

Answer: C      

 

Question: 2              

Summary address blocks can be used to support which network application?

  1. QoS
  2. IPsec tunneling
  3. Cisco TrustSec
  4. NAT
  5. DiffServ

Answer: D 

 

Question: 3              

A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?

  1. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
  2. Configure QoS in all links.
  3. Configure a new NET address.
  4. Configure the links as point-to-point.

Answer: D         

 

 

Question: 4              

What are three primary components in IS-IS fast convergence? (Choose three.)

  1. event propagation
  2. LSP flooding
  3. fast hellos
  4. matching MTUs
  5. updating RIB and FIB
  6. SPF calculation

Answer: A,E,F      

 

Question: 5              

A campus network utilizes EIGRP to connect to several remote branch offices.

Which configuration should be established on all branch routers to improve routing scalability and performance?

  1. Configure authentication between the campus and branch offices.
  2. Enable stub routing on all branch routers.
  3. Adjust EIGRP k-values to utilize delay.
  4. Utilize offset lists to direct traffic more efficiently.

Answer: B   3i0-012 dumps

 

Question: 6              

Which two design principles should be followed to scale EIGRP properly? (Choose two.)

  1. Ensure that the network design follows a structured hierarchical topology.
  2. Utilize route summarization on edge devices.
  3. Implement multiple autonomous systems, regardless of the size of the network.
  4. Tune EIGRP delay metric on all core devices.
  5. Configure offset lists on the network border.

Answer: A,B     

 

Question: 7              

 Which action can be taken on a multiaccess segment with OSPF speakers to reduce the performance impact during widespread convergence events?

  1. Separate the network into multiple areas for each new multiaccess segment.
  2. Enable LSA throttling in the core to slow link state advertisement updates during times of network instability.
  3. Ensure that the elected DR or BDR router can support high-volume convergence events.
  4. Verify that fewer than 50 OSPF speakers are on the segment.

Answer: C    

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QUESTION 52
52
Which two commands would you use to erase the Cisco Nexus Operation System configuration and return the switch to factory defaults? (Choose two.)
A. nexus# write erase boot
B. nexus# erase configuration
C. nexus# erase running-configuration
D. nexus# erase startup-configuration
E. nexus# reboot
F. nexus# reload
G. nexus# shutdown

Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 53
53
What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. nexus# con
B. nexus# configure
C. nexus# configure global
D. nexus# configure terminal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
54
Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration mode and return to the exec prompt?
A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z nexus#
C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E nexus#
D. nexus(config-if)#exit nexus#

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
55
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny unencrypted Web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)#ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
N5K-A(config)#access-list 101permit ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
56
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp N5K-A(config)#access-list 101denyip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# denyudp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: E  200-125 vce
QUESTION 57
57
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny hosts on the 172.16.1.0/21 network from accessing HTTP proxy servers listening on port 8080?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.7.255 any eq 8080 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any 172.16.1.0 255.255.248.0 eq 8080 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp172.16.1.0 0.0.15.255 eq 8080
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 172.16.1.0/21 eq 8080
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
58
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to only permit unencrypted Web traffic from the 172.16.1.0/25 network to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp host 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
B. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.128 any eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
D. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 0.0.0.128 eq 80
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp any 172.16.1.0 255.255.248.0 eq 80

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
59
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
60
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
61
Which network topology is most closely associated with FDDI?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
62
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with Token Ring Media Access Control?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session

Correct Answer: D

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Professional Experts Revised Oracle 1Z0-434 Exam Questions And Answers

1Z0-434 exam

Exam Number: 1Z0-434
Associated Certifications: Oracle SOA Suite 12c Certified Implementation Specialist
format: Multiple-Choice
Number of Questions: 78                                                      
Duration: 120
Passing Score: 73%
Exam Product Version: SOA Suite
Exam Topics:http://www.certday.com/1z0-434.html
Fundamentals:

  • Explain basic SOA concepts and how they map to implementations
  • Describe the components and architecture of SOA Suite
  • Describe SOA Suite’s role in cloud integration and mobile applications
  • Use the right components to implement common integration patterns
  • Analyze XPath expressions to retrieve elements in an XML document
  • Describe Oracle’s SOA governance capabilities
  • Describe how B2B capabilities enable trading partner relationships
  • Describe the main features of the Enterprise Scheduler Service (ESS)

BPEL Modeling

  • Use the BPEL Editor to create synchronous and asynchronous processes
  • Use WSDL partner link types and BPEL partner link elements to interact with services
  • Use the assign activity to manipulate data in BPEL variables
  • Model conditional branching, looping, and parallel processing
  • Implement exception handling, compensating transactions and correlation
  • Create and configure BPEL and composite sensors
  • Use the BPEL Debugger

Adapters

  • Describe the role adapters play in a SOA composite application
  • Describe the adapter architecture
  • Use the file, database, and JMS adapters
  • Configure adapters at design-time and run-time
  • Describe cloud-related adapters

Business Rules

  • Create if/then rules with Rules Designer
  • Create decision table rules with Rules Designer
  • Integrate a rule into a BPEL process
  • Describe how rules are used with mediator and human task components

Human Task Services

  • Design a human task
  • Invoke a human task from a BPEL process
  • Generate Application Development Framework (ADF) task forms for human tasks
  • Interact with the Worklist application to act on tasks

Service Mediation

  • Differentiate between when to use Mediator and Service Bus
  • Explain the role of Service Bus and the benefits it provides
  • Create and configure Service Bus proxies, pipelines, and business services
  • Use throttling, endpoint management, and caching to scale business services in Service Bus
  • Configure a service as RESTful and access it using the REST approach

Event Processing

  • Explain event-driven architecture and the support provided by Event Delivery Network (EDN)
  • Use components to publish and consume events
  • Explain Complex Event Processing (CEP) and how it is supported by Oracle Event Processing (OEP)
  • Explain Event Processing Network (EPN) and how it relates to OEP
  • Explain how various OEP CQL data cartridges enhance the capabilities of the CQL engine

Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)

  • Describe the role of BAM
  • Use activity monitors, counters, business indicators and interval monitoring objects
  • Create alert rules to launch alerts
  • Build an executive dashboard

Securing Services

  • Describe the role and features of Oracle Web Service Manager (OWSM)
  • Describe identity propagation
  • Attach security policies to end points at design-time and run-time

Deployment and Troubleshooting

  • Deploy and undeploy components to SOA Suite
  • Discuss the role Maven and Hudson play
  • Create test cases to initiate inbound messages and to emulate outbound, fault and callback messages
  • Monitor components deployed to SOA Suite
  • Describe how SOA Suite applications scale to large-scale production
  • Troubleshoot a deployed SOA Suite application

Installation and Configuration

  • Install and configure SOA Suite
  • Upgrade a production application from SOA Suite 11g
  • Install and configure Oracle Event Processing (OEP)

QUESTION 21
You have taken your primary metadata controller offline in order to update its Xsan file system. The secondary metadata controller is now the active controller of your Xsan volume.
After bringing your primary controller back online, how will you force it to resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume?
A. Do nothing: the primary controller will automatically resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume once it is online.
B. Use cvadmin to manually fail the volume on the active controller. This will cause the primary controller to resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.
C. In Xsan Admin’s Computers pane, set the primary controller’s priority to High. Upon restarting the computer, it will resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.
D. In Xsan Admin’s Computers pane, set the primary controller’s priority to High. Upon clicking the Save button, it will resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
When a client accesses files on an Xsan volume, what data is transferred from the volume to the client across the Fibre Channel network?
A. file contents
B. permissions
C. volume metadata
D. access control lists

Correct Answer: A   400-101 exam
QUESTION 23
When the metadata controller starts up, which TWO pieces of information will each fsm daemon register with the fsmpm daemon?
A. volume name
B. failover priority
C. port access number
D. metadata MAC address
E. World Wide Node Name (WWNN)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
When a user saves a file to an Xsan volume, how does the Xsan file system handle the file’s data?
A. Xsan mirrors the data to a metadata LUN.
B. Xsan stripes the data across LUNs in its storage pools.
C. Xsan synchronizes data copy between all RAID controllers.
D. Xsan divides the data files between the client’s host bus adapter (HBA) links.
E. Xsan creates a temporary directory on the client’s local file system to translate and transfer data to the Xsan volume.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What port settings should you use when configuring a QLogic switch for your Xsan volume?
A. I/O Stream Guard disabled on host machine ports and on storage device ports.
B. I/O Stream Guard enabled on host machine ports and on storage device ports.
C. I/O Stream Guard disabled on host machine ports, and enabled on storage device ports.
D. I/O Stream Guard enabled on host machine ports, and disabled on storage device ports.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 112
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run
Windows Server 2012 R2.
DirectAccess is deployed to the network.
Remote users connect to the DirectAccess server by using a variety of network speeds.

The remote users report that sometimes their connection is very slow.
You need to minimize Group Policy processing across all wireless wide area network (WWAN)
connections.

Which Group Policy setting should you configure?

A. Configure Direct Access connections as a fast network connection.
B. Change Group Policy processing to run asynchronously when a slow network connection is detected.
C. Configure Group Policy slow link detection.
D. Configure wireless policy processing. Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyPropertiesHttpPort 80.
E. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration. Correct Answer: CE

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm..

Enable seamless second factor authentication Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources. To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.
QUESTION 114
Your network contains two servers named Server 1 and Server 2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both
servers have the Hyper-V server role installed. Server 1 and Server 2 are located in different offices. The
offices connect to each other by using a high-latency WAN link.

Server 1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server 2 if Server 1 fails. The solution must minimize
hardware costs.
What should you do?

A. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server2, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication for VM1.
B. on Server 1, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
C. on Server2, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
D. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server1, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication for Vml.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 200-125 vce
QUESTION 115
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1. You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account. How should you configure Service1?
A. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the Log On settings.
D. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the privs parameter.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Explanation:
QUESTION 116
Your company deploys a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains a domain controller named DC10.
On DC10, the disk that contains the SYSVOL folder fails.
You replace the failed disk. You stop the Distributed File System (DFS) Replication service. You restore the SYSVOL folder.
You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10.
Which tool should you use before you start the DFS Replication service on DC10?
A. Active Directory Sites and Services
B. Ultrasound
C. Adsiedit.msc
D. Frsutil

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
How to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of DFSR-replicated SYSVOL (like “D2″ for FRS)
1. In theADSIEDIT.MSC tool modify the following distinguished name (DN) value and attribute on each of the domain controllers that you want to make non-authoritative:
CN=SYSVOL Subscription,CN=Domain System Volume,CN=DFSR- LocalSettings,CN=<the server name>,OU=Domain Controllers,DC=<domain>
msDFSR-Enabled=FALSE
2. Force Active Directory replication throughout the domain. Etc
QUESTION 117
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server 1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StoragePool
B. Diskpart
C. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
D. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can create a VHD from either the Disk Management snap-in or the command line (diskpart). From the DiskPart command-line tool at an elevated command prompt, run the create vdisk command and specify the file (to name the file) and maximum (to set the maximum size in megabytes) parameters. The following code demonstrates how to create a VHD file at C:\vdisks\disk1.vdh with a maximum file size of 16 GB (or 16,000 MB). DiskPart Microsoft DiskPart version 6.1.7100 Copyright (C) 1999-2008 Microsoft Corporation. On computer: WIN7 DISKPART> create vdisk file=”C:\vdisks\disk1.vhd” maximum=16000
QUESTION 118
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?

A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
C. Delete partition E.
D. Take Disk 1 offline. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: NB: added the missing exhibit http://blogs.technet.com/b/askcore/archive/2008/10/24/configuring-pass-through-disks-inhyper- v.aspx Passthrough Disk Configuration Hyper-V allows virtual machines to access storage mapped directly to the Hyper-V server without requiring the volume be configured. The storage can either be a physical disk internal to the Hyper-V server or it can be a Storage Area Network (SAN) Logical Unit (LUN) mapped to the Hyper-V server. To ensure the Guest has exclusive access to the storage, it must be placed in an Offline state from the Hyper-V server perspective. Additionally, this raw piece of storage is not limited in size so, hypothetically, it can be a multi terabyte LUN.
After storage is mapped to the Hyper-V server, it will appear as a raw volume and will be in an Offline state (depending on the SAN Policy (Figure 1-1)) as seen in Figure 1.

We stated earlier that a disk must be Offline from the Hyper-V servers’ perspective in order for the Guest to have exclusive access. However, a raw volume must first be initialized before it can be used. To accomplish this in the Disk Management interface, the disk must first be brought Online. Once Online, the disk will show as being Not Initialized (Figure 2).

Right-click on the disk and select Initialize Disk (Figure 3)

Select either an MBR or GPT partition type (Figure 4).

Once a disk is initialized, it can once again be placed in an Offline state. If the disk is not in an Offline state, it will not be available for selection when configuring the Guest’s storage. In order to configure a Pass-through disk in a Guest, you must select Attach a virtual disk later in the New Virtual Machine Wizard (Figure 5).

If the Pass-through disk will be used to boot the operating system, it must be attached to an IDE Controller. Data disks can take advantage of SCSI controllers. In Figure 6, a Passthrough disk is attached to IDE Controller 0.

Note: If the disk does not appear in the drop down list, ensure the disk is Offline in the Disk Management interface (In Server CORE, use the diskpart.exe CLI). Once the Pass-through disk is configured, the Guest can be started and data can placed on the drive. If an operating system will be installed, the installation process will properly prepare the disk. If the disk will be used for data storage, it must be prepared in the Guest operating system before data can be placed on it. If a Pass- through disk, being used to support an operating system installation, is brought Online before the Guest is started, the Guest will fail to start. When using Pass-through disks to support an operating system installation, provisions must be made for storing the Guest configuration file in an alternate location. This is because the entire Pass-through disk is consumed by the operating system installation. An example would be to locate the configuration file on another internal drive in the Hyper-V server itself. Or, if it is a cluster, the configuration file can be hosted on a separate cluster providing highly available file services. Be aware that Pass-through disks cannot be dynamically expanded. Additionally, when using Pass-through disks, you lose the capability to take snapshots, and finally, you cannot use differencing disks with Pass-through disks.
QUESTION 119
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1.
VM1 has a legacy network adapter.
You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.
C. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Add a New network adapter because the legacy network adapter doesn’t support bandwidth management.

References:
QUESTION 120
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member server named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Host1 hosts two virtual machines named VM5 and VM6. Both virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Virtual1.
On VM5, you install a network monitoring application named Monitor1. You need to capture all of the inbound and outbound traffic to VM6 by using Monitor1.
Which two commands should you run from Windows PowerShell? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter-IovWeight 1
B. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 0
C. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Source
D. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On
E. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Destination
F. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
-PortMirroring specifies the port mirroring mode for the network adapter. This can be set to None, Source, and Destination.
1.
If set to Source, a copy of every network packet it sends or receives is forwarded to a virtual network adapter configured to receive the packets.

2.
If set to Destination, it receives copied packets from the source virtual network adapter.
In this scenario, VM5 is the destination which must receive a copy of the network packets from VM6, which s the source.
Reference

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  1. Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking
  2. Secure resources
  3. Design an application storage and data access strategy
  4. Design an advanced application
  5. Design websites
  6. Design a management, monitoring, and business continuity strategy

Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)

  • Describe how Azure uses Global Foundation Services (GFS) datacenters
  • Design Azure virtual networks, networking services, DNS, DHCP, and IP addressing configuration
  • Design Azure Compute
  • Describe Azure virtual private network (VPN) and ExpressRoute architecture and design

QUESTION 41
You are configuring your Mac OS X computer to authenticate at the login window through an LDAP server. Which Open Directory user attribute are you NOT required to map to an LDAP user attribute?
A. UniqueID
B. MCXFlags
C. RealName
D. RecordName

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
You are configuring Mac OS X client computers to access user records in a third-party directory. Without modifying the schema on the third-party directory, how can you provide valid mount records for network home folders?
A. Create a mount record in the local LDAP directory on the Mac OS X client.
B. Use Directory Access to map VFSType to apple-user-homeurl on each client computer.
C. Use the Active Directory schema rather than the RFC 2307 schema on the LDAP directory.
D. Supplement the third-party directory with a directory on Mac OS X Server to host the mount records.

Correct Answer: D70-534 PDF

QUESTION 43
Your Mac OS X Server LDAP server provides LDAP mappings via DHCP. How can clients obtain the schema mappings for your server?
A. The mappings are delivered as part of the DHCP OFFER packet.
B. Clients request the schema mappings via the MetaDirectory protocol.
C. Clients install the schema files at /etc/openldap/schema on the client computer.
D. Clients query the LDAP server for the mapping configuration entry at cn=macosxodconfig,cn=config.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
An administrator assigns a computer with Mac OS X Server v10.4 to the role of Open Directory replica. What information will the administrator NOT be prompted to provide about the Open Directory master being replicated?
A. IP address of the master
B. MAC address of the master
C. root password for the master
D. LDAP directory administrator user name on the master

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Chris is logged into a Mac OS X computer using a non-admin network user account provided by Mac OS X Server v10.4. The user account is configured to use an Open Directory password. When Chris tries to connect to an AFP server that is configured to use only Kerberos authentication, an uthenticate to Kerberos dialog appears, requesting a name, realm, and password.
Chris enters the user account name and password again, and clicks OK. The same dialog reappears.
What can a local system administrator do to resolve Chris issue?
A. Tell Chris to log on to the client computer with a secure shadow hash.
B. Enable the Kerberosv5 plug-in in Directory Access on the client computer.
C. Use kdestroy to destroy any existing tickets in the cache on the client computer.
D. Ensure that the date, time, and time zone on the Mac OS X client and on the key distribution center (KDC) are synchronized.
E. Tell Chris to cancel the uthenticate to Kerberos dialog, connect to the AFP server as guest, and assume the connection is secure.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
In a default configuration, what LDAP user name do clients enter in Directory Access to perform LDAP queries on Mac OS X Server Open Directory?
A. ldap
B. admin
C. cn=ldap,dc=example,dc=com
D. cn=admin,dc=example,dc=com
E. Nonehe default configuration allows anonymous binding.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Which is a valid concern when using the Archive feature in Open Directory services on Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. The archive does not include the local NetInfo database or configuration files.
B. The archive contains all of the account passwords and should not be left unsecured.
C. You cannot archive a copy of the Open Directory data while the Open Directory master is in service.
D. Kerberos must be reconfigured after restoring from an archive, because the archive does not include Kerberos data.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
You are troubleshooting an Open Directory LDAP server. Which step will allow you to gather troubleshooting information from the server?
A. Start slapd with the flag -d 99.
B. Turn on verbose logging in Server Admin.
C. Start DirectoryServices with the flag -debug.
D. Edit /etc/hostconfig to contain LDAPARGS=’-d’.

Correct Answer: A

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400-101 Exam Question Answer:

A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.

Answer: D

400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)
A. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
B. It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP.
C. It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
D. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
E. It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.

Answer: DE

Explanation:

VPLS relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information. Therefore, flooding cannot be prevented. VPLS can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance. To multiplex multiple VLANs on a single instance, VPLS uses IEEE QinQ.

400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Which two statements describe characteristics of HDLC on Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
A. It supports multiple Layer 3 protocols.
B. It supports multiplexing.
C. It supports only synchronous interfaces.
D. It supports authentication.

Answer : A,C 

 

400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Which statement describes the BGP add-path feature?

A. It allows for installing multiple IBGP and EBGP routes in the routing table.
B. It allows a network engineer to override the selected BGP path with an additional path created in the config.
C. It allows BGP to provide backup paths to the routing table for quicker convergence.
D. It allows multiple paths for the same prefix to be advertised.

Answer : D    200-101 exam

 

400-101 Exam Question Answer:

Question: 18
Which two functions are performed by the DR in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The DR originates the network LSA on behalf of the network.
B. The DR is responsible for the flooding throughout one OSPF area.
C. The DR forms adjacencies with all other OSPF routers on the network, in order to synchronize the LSDB across the adjacencies.
D. The DR is responsible for originating the type 4 LSAs into one area.

Answer : A,C

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 2

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C  200-125 vce

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QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B?

A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222

D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. bridge
B. hub C. NIC
D. router
E. switch
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?

A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5

C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Correct Answer: E

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Professional ACI 3I0-012 Dumps Real Online Prep Materials

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QUESTION 61
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Unilateral collateral obligations to sovereign counterparties provide liquidity to banks.
B. Under Basel III commercial banks are most likely to incur lower costs to service their sovereign clients.
C. While banks usually do not call for collateral from sovereign counterparties, they must provide collateral for the offsetting hedge transactions which are undertaken with commercial counterparties.
D. Uncollateralised exposures to sovereign counterparties will not require additional regulatory capital to be set aside against potential credit losses

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Which one of the following statements about interest rate movements is true?
A. An upward parallel shift of interest rates will cause a loss of income if the rate-sensitivity of a bank’s liabilities is higher than the rate-sensitivity of its assets.
B. A bank will lose income if it has more rate-sensitive liabilities than rate-sensitive assets.
C. Falling interest rates will always result in mark-to-market profits on short positions in fixed rate securities.
D. Rising interest rates can result in mark-to-market losses on fixed-rate assets.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Under Basel rules, what is the meaning of EEPE?
A. Effective Expected Potential Exposure
B. Effective Expected Positive Exposure
C. Effective Expected Price Earning
D. Effective Expected Payment Exposure

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
The major risk to the effectiveness of netting is:
A. Credit risk
B. Settlement risk
C. Liquidity risk
D. Legal risk

Correct Answer: D   200-125 vce
QUESTION 65
Which of the following methods is a means of credit risk mitigation?
A. entering into a plain vanilla IRS
B. entering into collateral agreements
C. hedging a portfolio’s USD exposure
D. investing only in sizeable and liquid markets
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
Which of the following scenarios offer an example of wrong way risk?
A. A bank purchases credit protection on highly-rated tranches of US mortgage-backed securities from a US mortgage bank
B. A bank sells protection on the iTraxx main index at a level of 25 bps and shortly afterwards the index crosses the 200 bps level
C. A bank sells EUR put I USD call ATM options with an expiry date of 6 months and afterwards volatility moves up to substantially higher levels
D. A bank enters into a receiver’s swap while interest rates are increasing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Which of the following is typical of liquid assets held by banks under prudential requirements?
A. prices increase during a systemic crisis
B. return on investment is relatively high
C. absence of active market makers
D. wide bid/offer spreads

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 68
What is the correct interpretation of a EUR 2,000,000.00 overnight VaR figure with a 97% confidence level?
A. A loss of at least EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 97 out of the next 100 days.
B. A loss of at most EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 3 out of the next 100 days.
C. A loss of at least EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 3 out of the next 100 days.
D. A loss of at most EUR 2,000,000.00 can be expected in 6 out of the next 100 days.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
Hybex Electrics is a highly rated company with a considerable amount of fixed rate liabilities and would like to increase the percentage of floating rate debt. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A. Hybex should become a payer of a fixed rate on a swap against receipt of LIBOR.
B. Hybex should become a receiver of a floating rate on a swap against payment of a fixed rate
C. Hybex should become a receiver of a fixed rate on a swap against payment of LIBOR D.
D. Hybex should become a receiver of a floating rate on a swap against payment of LIBOR

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 70
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the increased capital ratios that will come into effect under Basel III?
A. minimum tier 1 capital of 4.5% and minimum total capital plus a conservation buffer of 10.5%
B. minimum tier 1 capital of 6% and minimum total capital including conservation buffer of 8%
C. minimum tier 1 capital of 4% and minimum total capital including conservation buffer of 10.5%
D. minimum tier 1 capital of 6% and minimum total capital including conservation buffer of 10.5%

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
Responsibility for the activities of all personnel engaged in dealing (both dealers and support staff) for both principals and brokers lies with:
A. the market supervisor
B. the national ACI association
C. the management of such organizations
D. the central bank

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which Greek letter is used to describe the ratio of change in the option price compared with change in the price of the underlying instrument, when all other conditions are fixed?
A. beta
B. gamma
C. delta
D. theta Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
When banks transact FX swaps, the spot price should be determined:
A. anytime after the swap is transacted
B. before the swap is transacted
C. immediately after the swap is transacted
D. no less than 24 hours after the completion of the swap
Correct Answer: C  200-105 pdf

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