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Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?

Correct Answer: BE
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.

Correct Answer: DE    70-487 exam
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones

Correct Answer: AC

810-403 exam
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.

Correct Answer: D
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account? (Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.

Correct Answer: AE
When selling outcomes, which three knowledge areas should sales professionals develop? (Choose three.)
A. Portfolio selling
B. Emerging technology trends
C. Stakeholder management
D. Sales enablement
E. Customer advocacy
F. Cisco partner ecosystem portfolio

Correct Answer: BCD

Which two statements partially describe the difference between product-based and outcome-based sales? (Choose two)
A. In product-based sales the customer knows the issue and is likely to fix it, in outcome-based sales the customer understands the business goal and what success looks like.
B. In product-based sales the customer expects to make product comparisons, in outcome-based sales the customer decides whether to make an investment based on comparing current and future state.
C. In product-based sales the customer may or may not be aware of the opportunity or problem, in outcome-based sales the customer will answer questions to clarify pain points.
D. In product -based sales the customer wants to hear about multiple solutions, in outcome -based sales the customer does not know value or benefit from a change.

Correct Answer: AB
At what three major levels can Cisco and its partners provide outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. strategic level
B. operational level
C. technology innovation level
D. executive level
E. business level

Correct Answer: BCE
Stakeholder audiences cover a range of customers, sales professionals, and others. Which three key position groups make up important stakeholders? (Choose three.)
A. Executives
B. Influencers
C. Employees
D. Decision makers
E. Suppliers

Correct Answer: ACE
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

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Cisco 500-260 Exam

500-260 : Cisco ASA Express Security
50 Questions & Answers
Updated On 10-OCT-2016

Exam Details:

500-260 Exam


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  • Total Questions: 83
  • Test Number: 70-697
  • Vendor Name: MICROSOFT
  • Cert Name :  MCSA: WINDOWS 10
  • Test Name: Configuring Windows Devices
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Question: 1
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy defines the list of approved Windows Store apps that are allowed for download and installation.
You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy.
You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company.
What should you do?

A. From Group Policy, enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode.
B. From Group Policy, run the Group Policy Results Wizard.
C. From Group Policy, run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard.
D. From PowerShell, run the Get-AppLockerPolicy –Effective command to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy.

Answer: A

Question: 2

You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
Your company has started testing Application Virtualization (App-V) applications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V applications are available to users even when the laptops are offline.
You need to ensure that the App-V applications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?

A. Change user permissions to the App-V applications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.

Answer: B  70-243 dumps

Question: 3
You have an image of Windows 10 Enterprise named Image1. Image1 has version number of a custom, line-of-business universal app named App1.
You deploy Image1 to Computer1 for a user named User1.
You need to update App1 to version on Computer1 for User1 only.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

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Exam Code: M70-201
Exam Name: Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam
M70-201 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2016-11-08
M70-201 Exams Detail:



NO.1 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Model
C. Helper
D. Resource model
Answer: B



NO.2 When setData (‘ some’, ‘value’) is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,
A. The ‘value’ of the attribute named ‘some’ is saved in the eav_values table
B. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ‘ some’ ‘value’ available to the entity
C. The ‘value’ of the attribute named T some’ is saved in the eav attribute values table
D. The ‘value’ of the attribute named ‘ some’ is saved in one of the entity’s tables depending on its
datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
Answer: D



NO.3 Which kind of class is responsible for calculating the actual amount of reward points in every case?
A. Event model (derivatives from Enterprise_Reward_Model_Event)
B. Action model (derivatives from Entet:prise_Reward_Model_Action)
C. Reward model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Reward)
D. Calculation model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Calculator)
Answer: B  117-202 exam

NO.4 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Model
B. Resource model
C. Helper
D. Controller
Answer: A



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Exam Code: 117-202
Exam Name: LPI Level 2 Exam 202
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Updated: 2016-11-01
117-202 Exam Detail:

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NO.1 Which /etc/hosts.allow entries will permit access to sshd for users from the 24
subnet? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. sshd : 192.168.1.
B. sshd :
C. sshd : netmask
D. sshd : 192.168.1
E. sshd :
Answer: A,E

NO.2 Which file in /proc contains information on the status of local software RAID devices?
A. /proc/raidstat
B. /proc/mdstatus
C. /proc/mdstat
D. /proc/raid/status
E. /proc/raidstatus
Answer: C

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Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to create a report that lists all of the client computers that do not have an Application named App1 instated.
Which query should you use to create the report?
B. SELECT SYS.Netbios_Name0 from v_R_System SYS WHERE SYS.ResourceID NOT IN (SELECT SYS.ResouceID FROM v_R_System AS SYS INNER JOIN v_GS_ADD_REMOVE_PROGRAMS AS ARP ON SYS.ResourceID = ARP.ResourceID WHERE ARP.DisplayName0 = ‘App1’)
C. SELECT SYS.Netbios_Name0, ARP.DisplayName0 FROM v_R_Sytem AS SYS INNER JOIN v_GS_ADD_REMOVE_PROGRAMS AS ARP ON SYS.ResourceID = ARP.ResourceID WHERE ARP.DisplayName0 NOT IN (‘App1’)
D. SELECT SYS.Netbios_Name0 from v_R_System SYS WHERE SYS.ResourceID IN (SELECT SYS.ResouceID FROM v_R_System AS SYS INNER JOIN v_GS_ADD_REMOVE_PROGRAMS AS ARP ON SYS.ResourceID = ARP.ResourceID WHERE ARP.DisplayName0 = ‘App1’)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
Network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You have the following query:
Select R.Name, U.UserName From SMS_R_System R Join SMS_R_User U On R.LastLogonUserName = U.UserName
You need to ensure that all of the client computers are listed in the query results.
Which join type should you use?

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You write the following query:
Select SYS.Name from SMS_R_System SYS

On ARP.ResourceId = SYS.ResourceId
You need to create a list of all the client computers that have a version of Visual Studio installed.
What should you add to the query?

A. where ARP.DisplayName like “Visual Studio*”
B. where ARP.DisplayName = “*Visual Studio*”
C. where ARP.DisplayName = “%%Visual Studio”
D. where ARP.DisplayName like “Visual studio%”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You need to receive an email message every day that lists all non-compliant clients. What should you do?
A. Create an alert subscription.
B. Configure a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.
C. Configure an in-console alert.
D. Create a ConfigMgr query.

Correct Answer: B

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Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains a reporting services point.
A group of users is responsible for creating custom reports. The custom reports will be published.

You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tools should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Report Builder
B. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
C. Microsoft Access 2010
D. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
E. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 37
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You create a report
named Report1. Report1 is used by multiple users.
Users report that it takes too long to load Report1.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to load Report1.
What should you do?

A. Enable caching for the report.
B. Decrease the Size of the ReportServer database.
C. Decrease the session timeout value for the Reports website.
D. Increase the size of the ReportServerTempDB database.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You are creating a
configuration item that contains application settings for Microsoft Office 2010.
You need to detect whether Office 2010 is installed before validating the configuration item.
What should you do?

A. Create a report to display all installed software.
B. Enable Use a custom script to detect this application.
C. Create a direct membership collection.
D. Create an automatic deployment rule.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Two weeks ago, you deployed a Windows Installer package named App1.
You need to remediate a registry value that applies only to the client computers that have App1 installed.

The solution must minimize network traffic.
What should you do?

A. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then create a new application for Appl.
B. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then configure the
existing application for App1 to use the new Windows Installer package.
C. Create an application-based configuration item, configure a rule for an existential type, and then import the registry setting from a client computer that has App1 installed.
D. Create an application-based configuration item, configure the detection method to use the Windows Installer product code of App1, and then import the registry setting from a client computer that has App1 installed.

Correct Answer: D
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to monitor compliance.
The company has a configuration baseline for each server that has the Web Server (IIS) server rote installed.
A new corporate policy specifies that the maximum TCP window size for all of the Web servers must be 131,072 bytes.
You discover that the TCP window size is set in the following registry entry:
HKEY_LOCAL_ MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\HTTP\Parameters\MaxBytesPerSend
You need to generate an error message for all of the Web servers that do NOT comply with the corporate policy.
What should you do?
A. Add a new configuration item that has a registry value setting type to the configuration baseline.
B. Create a query-based collection that contains all of the Web servers, and then initiate an inventory collection.
C. Create a query that returns a list of all the Web servers, and then search the query results for the registry value.
D. Add a new configuration item that has an Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase setting type to the configuration baseline.

Correct Answer: A
Your company has a production network and a test network. Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed.
You create the following objects on the test network:
A configuration item named WebCI

A configuration baseline named WebBaseline that contains WebCI

A collection named WebServers that contains all of the Web servers on the test network.
You export the configuration baseline to
You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings.
You need to apply the configuration baseline to the Web servers on the production network.
What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click WebBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
C. Right-click WebCI, select Export, and then specify as the export file.
D. Right-click WebBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type WebServers in the Filter… box.
E. Right-click WebBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the WebServers collection.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 42
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

The network contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You plan to deploy servers to the perimeter network by using Configuration Manager. The operating system for each server will be instated over the network. The installations will begin automatically, as soon as each server starts for the first time.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of network traffic between the perimeter network and the internal network during the installation of the operating systems.
What should you do?
A. Install a software update point on Server3.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
C. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server6.
D. Install a management point on Servers.
E. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
F. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
G. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
H. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
I. Install a management point on Server2.
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Exam 70-243: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012

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1Z0-803 exam – Java SE 7 Programmer Exam (1Z0-803) – Free 1Z0-803 Java SE 7 Programmer



Figure 3 ESP Packet

The SPI and sequence number fields follow the same format, and purpose as above. Payload Data is the actual data being transferred. Since IPSec uses block ciphers the payload may require some padding in order to make the payload a multiple of the block length. The pad length is then added, followed by the Next Header field, and finally the HMAC is added. IPSec supports two operational modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In Transport Mode only the data that is being transmitted is encrypted, the IP header is not modified, and the routing is left intact. This mode is used in host to host communication. In Tunnel Mode both the data and IP information are encrypted and are then encapsulated within a new IP packet in order to be routed. This mode is primarily used for host-to-network or network-to-network communications. Figure 4 shows the different IPSec modes.

Figure 4 Differences in Packets in Different IPSec Modes



IPSec is a fantastic protocol, but does have some drawbacks when used with a VPN. With an IPSec VPN you need to configure or install client software in order to connect to the VPN. Once the client is installed and configured IPSec is secure, however, you’re now tied to the workstation with the client software in order to access and resources provided by the tunnel.

We aren’t going to have a book about an SSL VPN without a little discussion about the protocol that makes it possible, Secure Sockets Layer, or SSL. SSL is the most widely deployed security protocol in the world. It’s what allows most people to feel safe making purchases online or using online banking, and you’d have a hard time finding someone that uses the Internet regularly that’s unfamiliar with the little lock in the corner of their browser. SSL was originally created by Netscape in 1994 in order to protect Web traffic for use with e-commerce, and it has since undergone a number of revisions. It provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication between two hosts with the use of encryption. As shown in Figure 5 SSL runs above TCP/IP but below other higher level protocols like HTTP and LDAP. It uses TCP/IP on behalf of the higher level protocols, and allows a server and client to authenticate to one another in order to establish an encrypted connection.

Figure 5 Location of SSL



SSL is a layered protocol and we’ll focus a bit more on two of the main layers, the SSL Record protocol and SSL Handshake protocol. The SSL Record protocol is responsible for the encapsulation of the higher level protocol data, while the SSL Handshake protocol is responsible for the authentication and negotiation of the encryption algorithm and keys between the client and server in order to establish a secure communication, this is accomplished using the SSL Record protocol.
SSL Record Protocol All encryption for SSL is handled by this protocol. The SSL Record protocol defines a standard format to be used for the transmission of data. These Records contain the message type, version, length, and encapsulated data. They are 8 bytes in length, and do to this fixed length a pad is sometimes necessary. SSL Handshake Protocol This protocol is used to establish a secure connection between the communicating hosts. The handshake allows the server to authenticate itself to the client using public key techniques, as well as client to server in some cases, and then allows for creation of symmetric keys for use with encryption, decryption, and integrity checking.

Here is a brief summary of the steps involved in the SSL Handshake (see Figure 6):
1. The client sends a message to the server in order to initiate a session. The message includes the SSL version, random data generated by the client, session identifier, cipher settings, and compression method. 2. The server responds to the client request by returning the same parameters used by the client. It will also send the server certificate, or server key exchange if no certificate is available, and a request for the client certificate if a server resource requiring authentication is requested. 3. The client initiates a client key exchange by creating a premaster secret and encrypting it with the server’s public key and sending it to the server. The client now returns the client certificate if one has been requested. It may also verify its certificate by sending data encrypted using its private key so that the server can verify that the client is indeed the owner of the certificate. 4. The server and client both generate a master secret based off of the shared premaster secret and use the master secret to generate the session keys. These are symmetric keys used to encrypt and decrypt the data throughout the session. 5. The client and server send a message to each other stating that all future communications will be encrypted using the session keys, and the handshake is complete.

xviii Introduction

Figure 6 SSL Handshake Step-by-Step



With an SSL VPN there is no need for client software and configuration. Since you can use any browser to connect to the VPN, you can access private resources from anywhere with a browser that supports SSL. Whether at home, an internet caf? or an airport kiosk, the widespread use of SSL makes connecting to company resources secure and easy.

An IPSec VPN is fantastic, and is a great choice when you’re looking for an always on, dedicated connection, from Network-to-Network across the Internet cloud. It takes more maintenance and time to deploy but is a solid solution. However, in this battle the SSL VPN seems to be taking on, and surpassing, IPSec as the choice for more and more VPN solutions. There are several reasons this may be the case; the cost associated with deploying an SSL VPN, the relatively low maintenance involved in administrating the device, and the increased control of resources. Because an SSL VPN uses a Web browser for access there is no maintenance performed on the client side as long as a supported browser is being used, this saves countless man hours and in turn money. It is also a cross platform solution; if the operating system has a supported browser installed then the resources can be accessed. Detailed access control can be used; different users can be given different levels of access rather than being allowed access to more resources than are absolutely necessary.

What Is the IVE?
All Juniper Networks Secure Access appliances are built upon the Instant Virtual Extranet (IVE) platform. An extranet is an extension of a corporate network to mobile users, telecommuters, or partners that is provided over a secure connection. The Juniper Networks SSL VPN provides this connection through a standard SSL enabled browser. Once a user has been authenticated they can make requests for resources to the IVE. The IVE, acting as a middle man between the external user and internal company resources, makes requests on behalf of the authenticated user. Any resources the user is permitted access to are passed to the IVE, which then passes the resource on to the remote user. This provides an excellent layer of security since the IVE is the only device ever communicating with the internal resources on the corporate network. Users are able to access internal websites, file servers, e-mail, Terminal Services sessions, and telnet and/or SSH sessions all through their browser. Here is a brief summary of how the IVE works:
1. The end user connects to the IVE using an SSL enabled browser, is authenticated, and makes a request for a specific resource. 2. The IVE logs the request, terminates the connection to the user, and requests the resource from the internal server using the appropriate protocols.

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Exam A
Frank wants to know why users on the corporate network cannot receive multicast transmissions from the Internet. An NGX Security Gateway protects the corporate network from the Internet. Which of the following is a possible cause for the connection problem?
A. NGX does not support multicast routing protocols and streaming media through the Security Gateway.
B. Frank did not install the necessary multicast license with SmartUpdate, when he upgraded to NGX.
C. The Multicast Rule is below the Stealth Rule. NGX can only pass multicast traffic, if the Multicast Rule is above the Stealth Rule.
D. Multicast restrictions are not configured properly on the corporate internal network interface properties of the Security Gateway object.
E. Anti-spoofing is enabled. NGX cannot pass multicast traffic, if anti-spoofing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D

In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (DN) is NOT found in LDAP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the LDAP account unit for a matching user id.
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username.
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the DN for the initial lookup.
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to the user id attribute.
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the identities with users registered in the external LDAP user database.
Correct Answer: B

Gary is a Security Administrator in a small company. He needs to determine if the company’s Web servers are accessed for an excessive number of times from the same host. How would he configure this setting in SmartDefense?
A. Successive multiple connections
B. HTTP protocol inspection
C. Successive alerts
D. General HTTP worm catcher
E. Successive DoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs. What can you do to keep old log files, when free space falls below 45 MB?
A. Define a secondary SmartCenter Server as a log server, to transfer the old logs.
B. Configure a script to archive old logs to another directory, before old log files are deleted.
C. Do nothing. Old logs are deleted, until free space is restored.
D. Use the fwm logexport command to export the old log files to other location.
E. Do nothing. The SmartCenter Server archives old logs to another directory.
Correct Answer: B

Brianna has three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. She wants internal users from
to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net

is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.

What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?

A. Configure automatic Static NAT rules for the DMZ servers.
B. Configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers, when connecting to the Internet.
C. Configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers, when the source is the internal network
D. Configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway, when connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x.
E. Configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind DMZ’s interface, when trying to access DMZ servers.
Correct Answer: C

You are setting up a Virtual Private Network, and must select an encryption scheme. Network performance is a critical issue – even more so than the security of the packet. Which encryption scheme would you select?
A. In-place encryption
B. Tunneling mode encryption
C. Either one will work without compromising performance
Correct Answer: A

Larry is the Security Administrator for a software-development company. To isolate the corporate network from the developers’ network, Larry installs an internal Security Gateway.
Larry wants to optimize the performance of this Gateway. Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway’s performance?
A. Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages.
B. Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules.
C. Use groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.
D. Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base.
E. Use domain objects in rules, where possible.
Correct Answer: A
If a digital signature is used to achieve both data-integrity checking and verification of sender, digital signatures are only used when implementing:
A. A symmetric encryption algorithm.
D. An asymmetric encryption algorithm.
E. Triple DES.
Correct Answer: D

Ellen is performing penetration tests against SmartDefense for her Web server farm. She needs to verify that the Web servers are secure against traffic hijacks. She has selected the “Products > Web Server” box on each of the node objects. What other settings would be appropriate? Ellen:
A. needs to configure TCP defenses such as “Small PMTU” size.
B. should enable all settings in Web Intelligence.
C. needs to create resource objects for the web farm servers and configure rules for the web farm.
D. must activate the Cross-Site Scripting property.
E. should also enable the Web intelligence > SQL injection setting.
Correct Answer: D

Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration information?
A. cpconfig
B. cpinfo -i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Correct Answer: E

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