[100% Valid] CCNA Collaboration: 100% Free Cisco Exams 210-060 Dumps Exam Video With Accurate Answers

Lead2exam 210-060 dumps Cisco Certified Network Associate Collaboration has been intended to authenticate the credentials of . And their major targeted audience for the exam is Assistant Support Engineer. Keeping the in mind, the examiner has bouncily declared the prerequisite of the Cisco Certified Network Associate Collaboration.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 155 Q&As

210-060

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QUESTION 1
A technician is preparing to activate the needed services in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to
integrate with an IM and Presence server. Which four services must be enabled? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TFTP
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco CTI Manager
D. Cisco Messaging Interface
E. Cisco Intercluster Lookup Service
F. Cisco Extended Functions
G. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
H. Cisco Directory Sync
Correct Answer: ABCG

 


QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication
Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the
administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 3
Which option would an administrator use to find all unassigned directory numbers in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. Route plan report
B. CDR
C. CAR
D. Cisco Reporting Tool
E. Directory number lookup
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 4
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber. Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which
three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.)
A. Jabber Advanced Settings
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D. Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E. Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F. Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G. Jabber Version
Correct Answer: ABC

 


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit
210-060

Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes?
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 6
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system > scheduler > CDR
B. system reports > unified CM data summary > generate report
C. system > tools > reports
D. tools > CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 7
An engineer receives a report that Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not responding. The
engineer needs to use RTMT to check errors. Which menu path should the engineer follow to install
RTMT?
A. System Settings > Plugins > RTMT
B. Unified Communications Serviceability > Downloads > RTMT
C. Application > Plugins > RTMT
D. System > Plugins > RTMT
Correct Answer: C

 


QUESTION 8
Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Port Monitor
B. Called Party Tracing
C. System Summary
D. Trace and Log Central

Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 9
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to
restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

To earn 210-060 Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices, it’s essential for each individual to have current and valid Cisco Certified Network Associate Collaboration. Besides that, there is not as such requirement of the Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices. But every individual who possesses the basic knowledge of Remote Authentication can also voluntarily apply for authorizing their credentials.

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Passed New Latest Updated Cisco 100-105 Vce ICND1 Exam Questions Video Today

Here is the complete guide to new CCNA v3 exams. Its combination of two topics, one by CBTNugget and the other is by reddit. So read and watch it carefully and find out what is new in CCNA v3 and what should you do for upgrading your 100-105 vce CCNA certifications?

Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 239
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html

100-105 Vce Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

Exam Number 100-105 ICND2
Associated Certifications CCNA Routing & Switching
Duration 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese
Register Pearson VUE
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review type of exam questions

100-105 vce

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QUESTION 12
Which three of the following steps can be taken to secure a BlackBerry device remotely if it has been activated on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.).
A. Reset the password and lock the BlackBerry device
B. Apply a more restrictive IT policy
C. Send a 911 notification to the service provider with the BlackBerry device PIN from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. Push disabled service books to the BlackBerry device
E. Perform a remote security wipe and disable the BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 13
By default, which three of the following options will delete all the user data on a BlackBerry device? (Choose three.)
A. Enter incorrect password 10 times
B. Use the Wipe command in BlackBerry Device Manager
C. Choose Wipe Handheld from general options in security settings
D. Uninstall any application from the Application Permissions menu
E. Use the application loader tool to install new BlackBerry device software

Correct Answer: ACE

 
QUESTION 14
A BlackBerry device user is trying to synchronize personal data and is receiving the following error: No applications configured for synchronization What might cause this error? (Choose one.)
A. The user MAPI profile is corrupt
B. Other synchronization software on the user computer has caused a conflict
C. The Synchronize application has not been installed in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. The user has not run through the configuration steps for the Synchronize application
E. Duplicate items in the user registry have caused a conflict

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 15
Which three of the following steps occur during the wireless enterprise activation process? (Choose three.)
A. Service books are sent to the BlackBerry device from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device reboots after it has finished synchronizing all organizer data (PIM) items
C. An encryption key is negotiated between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and BlackBerry device
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server populates the PIN number of the BlackBerry device in the BlackBerry Administration Service
E. The BlackBerry device must be connected to the user computer to complete the last stage of the wireless enterprise activation process

Correct Answer: ACD

 

 

QUESTION 16
What happens after the BlackBerry device user has entered the enterprise activation information and selects Activate on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service contacts the BlackBerry device over the wireless network and negotiates an encryption key
B. The BlackBerry device submits an ETP.DAT email message directly to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The BlackBerry device submits the enterprise activation data to the wireless network
D. The system administrator of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server will receive a request to activate, which can either be accepted or denied
E. The BlackBerry device service books are verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 17
A BlackBerry device user notices email messages are being randomly deleted from the BlackBerry device only days after receiving them. The user is not active on a BlackBerry Enterprise Server and does not use BlackBerry Desktop Manager to synchronize with the messaging client. What are two possible reasons the user email messages are being deleted? (Choose two.) 100-105 vce
A. The email messages database is corrupt
B. The BlackBerry device user does not have sufficient network coverage
C. The BlackBerry device is in a low memory state
D. The hosted mailbox has reached its storage limit
E. The email messages are being automatically filed and hidden

Correct Answer: AC

 

 

QUESTION 18
A user wants to connect a BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager using Bluetooth to synchronize. Which of the following are requirements? (Choose one.)
A. The computer must be running the Bluetooth software from the manufacturer of the Bluetooth adapter
B. The BlackBerry Bluetooth to USB driver must be installed on the computer
C. The BlackBerry device must have the Wireless Bypass service enabled
D. The BlackBerry device must have the Bluetooth Sync service enabled
E. The computer and the BlackBerry Device must have line of sight of each other

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 19
When performing a backup of the BlackBerry device using the backup and restore tool in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what is the file extension of the backup file that is created? (Choose one.)
A. .bak
B. .sav
C. .ipd
D. .fil
E. .tmp

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 20
A BlackBerry device user activates with an incorrect password. What error message will be displayed on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Incorrect password. Please try again.
B. An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator.
C. Invalid email address or password.
D. Error.
E. Invalid login credentials.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which two of the following options is the BlackBerry device waiting to receive at the Waiting for services stage of the wireless enterprise activation? (Choose two.)
A. An IT Policy
B. Service books
C. PIM items from the messaging server
D. An encryption key
E. An ETP.DAT email message

Correct Answer: AB

 
QUESTION 22
Which of the following ports does the BlackBerry Enterprise Server use to communicate with the BlackBerry Infrastructure? (Choose one.)
A. Port 8080
B. Port 3100
C. Port 3001
D. Port 4101
E. Port 3101

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 23
A BlackBerry device user reports that due to low memory on the BlackBerry device, the email messages, text messages and call logs are auto-deleting. In which two of the following ways can the application loader tool help this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Remove unneeded languages, videos and applications from the BlackBerry Installshield screen
B. Remove unneeded languages, videos and applications from the Device Application Selection screen
C. Use Device Data Options to delete all application data and installed applications
D. Use MemConfig to recover lost sectors and defrag BlackBerry device memory
E. Use BlackBerry MemRestore to recover lost sectors and defrag BlackBerry device memory

Correct Answer: BC

100-105 vce

The History of CCNA Routing and Switching

Several related anniversaries are happening around this same year (2016) in which Cisco has announced what is basically the 7th version of the CCNA R&S certification exams. The CCIE program has passed its 20-year mark back in 2013, with the CCNA and CCNP Routing and Switching certifications reaching their 20th anniversary coming up in 2018. The Cisco Networking Academy will hit it’s 20 year mark in 2017 I believe, and Cisco Press celebrates its 20 year anniversary here in 2016. So the timing seemed right for a look back at CCNA Routing and Switching, as well as CCENT. Along the way, I’ll try and clear up some terminology and references about the new 100-105 vce.

Passing Cisco certification 100-105 vce is not very simple. Perhaps passing Cisco certification 100-105 exam is a stepping stone to promote yourself in the IT area, but it doesn’t need to spend a lot of time and effort to review the relevant knowledge, you can choose to use our Pass4itsure 100-105 vce ICND1 v3.0 study books prepared for the IT certification exams.The appropriate selection of training is a guarantee of success.

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The Most Recommended Oracle 1Z0-061 Dumps Oracle Database 12c Study Material Video Online

1Z0-061 dumps

Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
Exam Code: 1Z0-061
Total Questions: 75 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 07, 2017

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Resource Manager and Other Performance Enhancements
  • Use Resource Manager for a CDB and PDB
  • Explain Multi-process Multi-threaded Oracle architecture
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Index and Table Enhancements
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Between the late 60’s and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which of the following should be used as a guideline for estimating space requirements of optical fiber and coaxial cable cross-connections in a TR?
A. 3 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
B. 2 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
C. 4 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
D. 1 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75

Correct Answer: A 1Z0-061 dumps QUESTION 6
________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit, cable, or component
offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 7
The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 9
Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996

Correct Answer: D 1Z0-061 dumps QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A

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Most Reliable Microsoft 70-487 Exam Preparation Material – Developing Windows Azure and Web Services

Microsoft offers a set of certifications that validate a software developer’s expertise in Microsoft technologies. Certifications such as the Microsoft Certified Solutions Developer (MCSD) are achieved by passing a set of related certification 70-487 exam, each with a different technology focus.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Total Questions: 113 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 03, 2017

Still Here? Congratulations, you are taking your first steps towards passing the Microsoft 70-487 exam. The purpose of this post is to link to all the resources that I used when revising for the exam myself. So why 30 days? Well its important to set yourself a target.  Setting yourself a target motivates you.  If you are paying for this exam yourself (like I did), you’ll really want to make sure you give the exam your best shot.

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QUESTION 12
The software configuration status information for a BlackBerry device user includes:
Configuration Status: OK System Status: Downgrade Required Application Status: Upgrade Required
What does this indicate? (Choose one.)
A. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is newer and third-party software that is older than what is specified in the software configuration.
B. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is older and third-party software that is newer than what is specified in the software configuration.
C. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, newer BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is older than what it needs to be.
D. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, older BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is newer than what it needs to be.
E. On the computer hosting the applications, the software configuration needs to be re-indexed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Using BlackBerry Manager, which status indicates that a BlackBerry device user has been successfully activated? (Choose one.)
A. RUNNING
B. ACTIVATED
C. INITIALIZING
D. **BES_NAME(RUNNING)
E. **INITIALIZING

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
A system administrator is unable to assign an IT policy to a BlackBerry device user account or to a group. To resolve this problem, which role must be assigned to the system administrator? (Choose one.)
A. Administrator
B. Senior Help Desk Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Audit Administrator
E. Security Audit Administrator

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 15
Which BlackBerry Resource Kit tool allows a system administrator to differentiate between hung and busy worker threads? (Choose one.)
A. MessageFlow
B. Pending
C. OutOfCoverage
D. NoResponse
E. AvailIndex

Correct Answer: D

 
QUESTION 16
During the wireless enterprise activation process, the BlackBerry device stops responding and displays the following error message:
Waiting for Services
Which two factors could delay the response of the enterprise activation process? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device user is in an area with sporadic wireless network coverage.
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is unable to connect to the BlackBerry Configuration Database.
C. The BlackBerry device requires a security wipe prior to the enterprise activation.
D. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the database.
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the user mailbox.

Correct Answer: AD

 
QUESTION 17
The system administrator installed the BlackBerry Enterprise Server with BlackBerry MDS Integration Service. Which two interfaces are available to administer the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Manager
B. BlackBerry MDS Studio
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration tool
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration tool
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer

Correct Answer: AE

 
QUESTION 18
A company must move the BlackBerry Configuration Database from the local BlackBerry Enterprise Server using MSDE to a new Microsoft SQL Server to improve the performance of the database. What is the best method for moving the database? (Choose one.)
A. Install the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software on the new computer to create the database.
B. Back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
C. Run Createdb to create the database on the new Microsoft SQL Server and restore the backup of the old database to the new database.
D. Run BlackBerry Backup to back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
E. Run Createdb-export to export the database information and then run Createdb-import to restore the database to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
Correct Answer: C 70-487 exam

 

 

QUESTION 19
Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an existing application in a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the existing application from the BlackBerry device.
B. Copy and overwrite the existing application into the Shared folder.
C. Index the applications listed in the Applications directory.
D. Refresh the applications listed in the Applications directory.
E. Replace the old application with the new application.

Correct Answer: CE

 
QUESTION 20
Once the Enterprise Service Policy has been enabled, which of the following two things can be controlled by a system administrator? (Choose two.)
A. The range of PIN numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device models that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The range of IMEI numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The specific time frame in which the BlackBerry device users can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. A specific user service provider that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server

Correct Answer: AB

 
QUESTION 21
A system administrator removed a BlackBerry device user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and tried to add the user back using the BlackBerry Manager. The system administrator was unable to add the user back to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server because they still resided in Users Pending Delete. What should the system administrator do to remove the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using BlackBerry Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to clear the user from the Users Pending Delete
B. Hard delete the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. Use the Purge User command under the Users Pending Delete tab.
D. Remove the user from Users Pending Delete using the BlackBerry Resource Kit.
E. Reload the user and try to delete the user again

Correct Answer: C

 
QUESTION 22
A system administrator enabled the Enterprise Service Policy and determined a list of models and manufacturers that are allowed to be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. The CEO has a new BlackBerry device that has yet to be included on the list of permitted models. The system administrator wants to permit only the CEO BlackBerry device to be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and not other BlackBerry devices, even though they are the same model. How can the Enterprise Service Policy be configured to meet these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Turn off the Enterprise Service Policy, perform an enterprise activation of the BlackBerry device and after a successful enterprise activation, turn on the Enterprise Service Policy.
B. Manually enter the new BlackBerry device model into the permitted list and set the ES Policy Override to True for the BlackBerry device user account.
C. Set the ES Policy Override to True for the user’s account and perform an enterprise activation of the BlackBerry device.
D. Install the BlackBerry Device Software on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to update the list of models and add the new model to the permitted list.
E. Set the ES Policy Override to True for the user’s account and after enterprise activation, set the ES Policy Override to False.

Correct Answer: C

 
70-487 exam QUESTION 23
Once the BlackBerry Enterprise Server or the BlackBerry Manager is installed, which method of authentication does the BlackBerry Manager accept by default? (Choose one.)
A. Windows authentication
B. SQL authentication
C. Mixed mode authentication
D. NTLM authentication
E. Secure authentication

Correct Answer: A

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70-414 Exam Sample Questions Answers Deploy an update to service instance, Revealing Cluster-Aware Updating and the New Generation of WSUS, Windows Server Update Services Overview, Starting with Cluster-Aware Updating: Self-Updating, Cluster-Aware Updating and the New Generation of WSUS, Managing Software Updates in Configuration Software Updates to Configure Patching Fabric with SCVMM 2012, VMM 2012 Update Management.

70-414 Questions & Answers

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Server Infrastructure
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
Last Updated: Feb 21, 2017
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE
Exam Informationhttp://www.testsmoon.com/70-414.html

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11.You need to create a service template for the web servers used by the CRM application.
What should you include in the service template?
A. A VIP template
B. A host profile
C. Guest OS profile
D. A capability profile
Answer: A
Explanation:

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12.You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web servers for the CRM application. The
solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB) without affinity
B. Failover Clustering with one active node
C. Failover Clustering with two active nodes
D. Network Load Balancing (NLB) with client affinity
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Topic 2, Proseware Inc
General Overview
Proseware Inc., is a manufacturing company that has 4,000 employees.
Proseware works with a trading partner named Fabrikam, Inc.
Physical Locations
Proseware has a main office and two branch office. The main office is located in London. The branch
offices are located in Madrid and Berlin. Proseware has a sales department based in the London office
and a research department based in the Berlin office.
The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
Proseware rents space at a hosting company. All offices have a dedicated WAN link to the hosting
company. Web servers that are accessible from the Internet are located at the hosting company.

Active Directory
The Proseware network contains an Active Directory forest named proseware.com. The forest contains a
single domain. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012.
Each office contains three domain controllers. An Active Directory site is configured for each office.
System state backups are performed every day on the domain controllers by using System Center 2012
R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM).
Virtualization
Proseware has Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Each Hyper-V host manages eight to 10
the virtual machines.
The Hyper-V hosts are configured as shown in the following table.

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All of the Hyper-V hosts store virtual machines on direct-attached storage (DAS).
Servers
All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.All of the servers are virtualized, except for the Hyper-V hosts.
VDI1 and VDI2 use locally attached storage to host virtual hard disk (VHD) files. The VHDs use the .vhd
format.
A line-of-business application named SalesApp is used by the sales department and runs on a server
named APP1.APP1 is hosted on HyperV2.
A server named CA1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed and is configured
as an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named ProsewareCA.
Ten load-balanced web servers hosted on HyperV7 and HyperVS run the Internet-facing web site that
takes orders from Internet customers.
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is used to monitor the health of the servers on the network.
All of the servers are members of the proseware.com domain, except for the servers located in the
perimeter network.
Client Computers
All client computers run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 1.Some of the users in the London office connect
to pooled virtual desktops hosted on VDI1 and VDI2.

Problem Statements
Proseware identifies the following issues on the network:
Virtualization administrators report that the load on the Hyper-V hosts is inconsistent. The virtualization
administrators also report that administrators fail to account for host utilization when creating new virtual
machines.
Users in the sales department report that they experience issues when they attempt to access SalesApp
from any other network than the one in the London office.
Sometimes, configuration changes are not duplicated properly across the web servers, resulting in
customer ordering issues. Web servers are regularly changed.
Demand for virtual desktops is increasing. Administrators report that storage space is becoming an issue
as they want to add more virtual machines.
In the past, some personally identifiable information (PII) was exposed when paper shredding procedures
were not followed.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Proseware plans to implement the following changes on the network:
– Implement a backup solution for Active Directory.
– Relocate the sales department to the Madrid office.
– Implement System Center 2012 R2 components, as required.
– Protect email attachments sent to Fabrikam that contain PII data so that the attachments cannot be
printed.
– Implement System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage the virtual machine
infrastructure. Proseware does not plan to use private clouds in the near future.

– Deploy a new Hyper-V host named RESEARCH1 to the Berlin office.RESEARCH1 will be financed by
the research department. All of the virtual machines deployed to RESEARCH1 will use VMM templates.
Technical Requirements
Proseware identifies the following virtualization requirements:
– The increased demand for virtual desktops must be met.
– Once System Center is deployed, all of the Hyper-V hosts must be managed by using VMM.
– If any of the Hyper-V hosts exceeds a set number of virtual machines, an administrator must be notified
by email.
– Network administrators in each location must be responsible for managing the Hyper-V hosts in their
respective location. The management of the hosts must be performed by using VMM.
– The network technicians in each office must be able to create virtual machines in their respective office.
The network technicians must be prevented from modifying the host server settings.
– New virtual machines must be deployed to RESEARCH1 only if the virtual machine template used to
create the machine has a value specified for a custom property named CostCenter’ that matches
Research’.
The web site configurations must be identical on all web servers.
Security Requirements
Proseware identifies the following security requirements:

– All email messages sent to and from Fabrikam must be encrypted by using digital certificates issued to
users by the respective CA of their company. No other certificates must be trusted between the
organizations.
– Microsoft Word documents attached to email messages sent from Proseware to Fabrikam must be
protected.
– Privileges must be minimized, whenever possible.
1.HOTSPOT
You need to recommend a design that meets the technical requirements for managing the Hyper-V hosts
by using VMM.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

70-414 exam

70-414 exam

2.DRAG DROP
You need to recommend a monitoring solution for Proseware.
Which three actions should you recommend performing in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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100% Pass Guaranteed‎ Mb2-707 Dumps For Exam Groundbreaking Results

Exam Code: MB2-707MB2-707 dumps
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration
MB2-707 Actual Test Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2017-02-05
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QUESTION 1
You are adding a Personal Identification Number field to the contact entity.
Users should be able to add data to this field when a contact record is created but should not be able to read or modify it after the contact is created.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Enable field security on the Personal Identification Number field customization.
B. In the users’ Security Role, grant an Organization level Create permission for the Contact entity.
C. In the field security profile for the users, set the Personal Identification Number Create permission to Yes, the Update permission to Yes, and the Read permission to No.
D. In the field security profile for the users, set the Personal Identification Number Create field permission to Yes, the Update permission to No, and the Read permission to No.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 2
All users in your organization share a security role named Contoso Employee. The only current Account form is assigned to that role and is configured as a fallback. The marketing team has an additional security role named Contoso Marketing, and your support team has an additional security role named Contoso Support.
You need to create a new form for the marketing team.
You have the following requirements:
The form must be the only form available to the marketing team. The support team must have access to this new form and the current form.
What should you do?
A. Assign the new form to Contoso Marketing and Contoso Support. Then remove Contoso Employee from the current form, and assign Contoso Support to it
B. Assign the new form to Contoso Support and Contoso Marketing, and remove Contoso Employee from the current form.
C. Assign the new form to the Contoso Marketing secunty role, and configure it as the fallback. Then remove Contoso Employee from the current form.
D. Assign the new form to Contoso Marketing, and configure it as the fallback. Then add Contoso Support to the current form after removing Contoso Employee.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are creating a new business process flow for a custom Event entity.
You create the new process and select business process flow from the Category list but you cannot find the Event entity in the Entity list.
What should you do?
A. Activate the new business process flow to refresh the Entity list
B. Save the new business process flow to refresh the Entity list.
C. Configure the entity to display in the Settings area, and then publish it
D. Configure the entity to enable business process flows, and then publish it
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 4
You are a customer service manager. You create a personal dashboard that contains one system chart
and two personal views.
You need to make this dashboard available to the rest of the organization.
What should you do?

A. Assign a security role to your dashboard, and then assign the security role to the rest of the users or teams in the organization.
B. Convert the personal dashboard to a system dashboard, and then publish it.
C. Share your personal dashboard and the two personal views with the rest of the users or teams in the organization.
D. Add your personal dashboard to a Solution and export it Re-import it as a system dashboard. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You create a new custom entity named Project. It has a lookup to Account.
You create a field that maps from the City field on the Account to the Location field on the Project.
What should a user do to apply the mapping?

A. Create a new Account. From the Account create the new project.
B. Look up an existing Account. From the Account record, add an existing project
C. Create a new Project. Using the Account lookup, select an existing Account.
D. Create a new Project. Using the Account lookup, create a new Account. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to convert a personal chart to a system chart in Microsoft Dynamics CRM? What should you do?
A. Export the chart from the chart pane, and import it into the entity customization chart area.
B. Create a solution that includes the personal chart and import the solution to create the system chart.
C. Go to the entity customization, and recreate the chart as a system chart.
D. Share the chart with all other Dynamics CRM users to convert it to a system chart.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You want to add a drop-down list control on a form to present a fixed list of choices to the user. Which Data Type should you use?
A. Lookup
B. Option Set
C. Picklist
D. Multiple Lines of Text
Correct Answer: B Explanation
200-125 vce QUESTION 8
An Account record has an Option Set named Relationship Type.

You need to ensure that when the Relationship Type is not Customer, the Account Number field does not
display.
What should you do?

A. Use business rules.
B. Create a dialog.
C. Create a real-time workflow.
D. Configure the business process flow. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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Being Successful In Pass New Release Cisco 300-320 Exam Certification

Total Questions: 283
Test Number: 300-320
Vendor Name: Cisco
Cert Name:  CCDP
Test Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Official Site: http://www.examtrue.com/
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Question: 1              

An organization is designing the IP allocation of a new site. It currently has 12 separate IP segments. Each segment must be /24, accommodate 25% of growth, and be easily summarized.

Which summarized IP block can be subnetted to meet these requirements?

  1. /18
  2. /19
  3. /20
  4. /21

Answer: C      

 

Question: 2              

Summary address blocks can be used to support which network application?

  1. QoS
  2. IPsec tunneling
  3. Cisco TrustSec
  4. NAT
  5. DiffServ

Answer: D 

 

Question: 3              

A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network. Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?

  1. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
  2. Configure QoS in all links.
  3. Configure a new NET address.
  4. Configure the links as point-to-point.

Answer: D         

 

 

Question: 4              

What are three primary components in IS-IS fast convergence? (Choose three.)

  1. event propagation
  2. LSP flooding
  3. fast hellos
  4. matching MTUs
  5. updating RIB and FIB
  6. SPF calculation

Answer: A,E,F      

 

Question: 5              

A campus network utilizes EIGRP to connect to several remote branch offices.

Which configuration should be established on all branch routers to improve routing scalability and performance?

  1. Configure authentication between the campus and branch offices.
  2. Enable stub routing on all branch routers.
  3. Adjust EIGRP k-values to utilize delay.
  4. Utilize offset lists to direct traffic more efficiently.

Answer: B   3i0-012 dumps

 

Question: 6              

Which two design principles should be followed to scale EIGRP properly? (Choose two.)

  1. Ensure that the network design follows a structured hierarchical topology.
  2. Utilize route summarization on edge devices.
  3. Implement multiple autonomous systems, regardless of the size of the network.
  4. Tune EIGRP delay metric on all core devices.
  5. Configure offset lists on the network border.

Answer: A,B     

 

Question: 7              

 Which action can be taken on a multiaccess segment with OSPF speakers to reduce the performance impact during widespread convergence events?

  1. Separate the network into multiple areas for each new multiaccess segment.
  2. Enable LSA throttling in the core to slow link state advertisement updates during times of network instability.
  3. Ensure that the elected DR or BDR router can support high-volume convergence events.
  4. Verify that fewer than 50 OSPF speakers are on the segment.

Answer: C    

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QUESTION 52
52
Which two commands would you use to erase the Cisco Nexus Operation System configuration and return the switch to factory defaults? (Choose two.)
A. nexus# write erase boot
B. nexus# erase configuration
C. nexus# erase running-configuration
D. nexus# erase startup-configuration
E. nexus# reboot
F. nexus# reload
G. nexus# shutdown

Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 53
53
What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. nexus# con
B. nexus# configure
C. nexus# configure global
D. nexus# configure terminal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
54
Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration mode and return to the exec prompt?
A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z nexus#
C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E nexus#
D. nexus(config-if)#exit nexus#

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
55
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny unencrypted Web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)#ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
N5K-A(config)#access-list 101permit ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
56
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp N5K-A(config)#access-list 101denyip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# denyudp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: E  200-125 vce
QUESTION 57
57
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny hosts on the 172.16.1.0/21 network from accessing HTTP proxy servers listening on port 8080?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.7.255 any eq 8080 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any 172.16.1.0 255.255.248.0 eq 8080 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp172.16.1.0 0.0.15.255 eq 8080
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 172.16.1.0/21 eq 8080
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
58
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to only permit unencrypted Web traffic from the 172.16.1.0/25 network to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp host 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
B. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.128 any eq 80
C. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 any eq 80
D. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp 172.16.1.0/25 0.0.0.128 eq 80
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp any 172.16.1.0 255.255.248.0 eq 80

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
59
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
60
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
61
Which network topology is most closely associated with FDDI?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
62
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with Token Ring Media Access Control?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session

Correct Answer: D

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Professional Experts Revised Oracle 1Z0-434 Exam Questions And Answers

1Z0-434 exam

Exam Number: 1Z0-434
Associated Certifications: Oracle SOA Suite 12c Certified Implementation Specialist
format: Multiple-Choice
Number of Questions: 78                                                      
Duration: 120
Passing Score: 73%
Exam Product Version: SOA Suite
Exam Topics:http://www.certday.com/1z0-434.html
Fundamentals:

  • Explain basic SOA concepts and how they map to implementations
  • Describe the components and architecture of SOA Suite
  • Describe SOA Suite’s role in cloud integration and mobile applications
  • Use the right components to implement common integration patterns
  • Analyze XPath expressions to retrieve elements in an XML document
  • Describe Oracle’s SOA governance capabilities
  • Describe how B2B capabilities enable trading partner relationships
  • Describe the main features of the Enterprise Scheduler Service (ESS)

BPEL Modeling

  • Use the BPEL Editor to create synchronous and asynchronous processes
  • Use WSDL partner link types and BPEL partner link elements to interact with services
  • Use the assign activity to manipulate data in BPEL variables
  • Model conditional branching, looping, and parallel processing
  • Implement exception handling, compensating transactions and correlation
  • Create and configure BPEL and composite sensors
  • Use the BPEL Debugger

Adapters

  • Describe the role adapters play in a SOA composite application
  • Describe the adapter architecture
  • Use the file, database, and JMS adapters
  • Configure adapters at design-time and run-time
  • Describe cloud-related adapters

Business Rules

  • Create if/then rules with Rules Designer
  • Create decision table rules with Rules Designer
  • Integrate a rule into a BPEL process
  • Describe how rules are used with mediator and human task components

Human Task Services

  • Design a human task
  • Invoke a human task from a BPEL process
  • Generate Application Development Framework (ADF) task forms for human tasks
  • Interact with the Worklist application to act on tasks

Service Mediation

  • Differentiate between when to use Mediator and Service Bus
  • Explain the role of Service Bus and the benefits it provides
  • Create and configure Service Bus proxies, pipelines, and business services
  • Use throttling, endpoint management, and caching to scale business services in Service Bus
  • Configure a service as RESTful and access it using the REST approach

Event Processing

  • Explain event-driven architecture and the support provided by Event Delivery Network (EDN)
  • Use components to publish and consume events
  • Explain Complex Event Processing (CEP) and how it is supported by Oracle Event Processing (OEP)
  • Explain Event Processing Network (EPN) and how it relates to OEP
  • Explain how various OEP CQL data cartridges enhance the capabilities of the CQL engine

Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)

  • Describe the role of BAM
  • Use activity monitors, counters, business indicators and interval monitoring objects
  • Create alert rules to launch alerts
  • Build an executive dashboard

Securing Services

  • Describe the role and features of Oracle Web Service Manager (OWSM)
  • Describe identity propagation
  • Attach security policies to end points at design-time and run-time

Deployment and Troubleshooting

  • Deploy and undeploy components to SOA Suite
  • Discuss the role Maven and Hudson play
  • Create test cases to initiate inbound messages and to emulate outbound, fault and callback messages
  • Monitor components deployed to SOA Suite
  • Describe how SOA Suite applications scale to large-scale production
  • Troubleshoot a deployed SOA Suite application

Installation and Configuration

  • Install and configure SOA Suite
  • Upgrade a production application from SOA Suite 11g
  • Install and configure Oracle Event Processing (OEP)

QUESTION 21
You have taken your primary metadata controller offline in order to update its Xsan file system. The secondary metadata controller is now the active controller of your Xsan volume.
After bringing your primary controller back online, how will you force it to resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume?
A. Do nothing: the primary controller will automatically resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume once it is online.
B. Use cvadmin to manually fail the volume on the active controller. This will cause the primary controller to resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.
C. In Xsan Admin’s Computers pane, set the primary controller’s priority to High. Upon restarting the computer, it will resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.
D. In Xsan Admin’s Computers pane, set the primary controller’s priority to High. Upon clicking the Save button, it will resume its role as the active controller for the Xsan volume.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
When a client accesses files on an Xsan volume, what data is transferred from the volume to the client across the Fibre Channel network?
A. file contents
B. permissions
C. volume metadata
D. access control lists

Correct Answer: A   400-101 exam
QUESTION 23
When the metadata controller starts up, which TWO pieces of information will each fsm daemon register with the fsmpm daemon?
A. volume name
B. failover priority
C. port access number
D. metadata MAC address
E. World Wide Node Name (WWNN)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
When a user saves a file to an Xsan volume, how does the Xsan file system handle the file’s data?
A. Xsan mirrors the data to a metadata LUN.
B. Xsan stripes the data across LUNs in its storage pools.
C. Xsan synchronizes data copy between all RAID controllers.
D. Xsan divides the data files between the client’s host bus adapter (HBA) links.
E. Xsan creates a temporary directory on the client’s local file system to translate and transfer data to the Xsan volume.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What port settings should you use when configuring a QLogic switch for your Xsan volume?
A. I/O Stream Guard disabled on host machine ports and on storage device ports.
B. I/O Stream Guard enabled on host machine ports and on storage device ports.
C. I/O Stream Guard disabled on host machine ports, and enabled on storage device ports.
D. I/O Stream Guard enabled on host machine ports, and disabled on storage device ports.
Correct Answer: D

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70-417 vce

QUESTION 112
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run
Windows Server 2012 R2.
DirectAccess is deployed to the network.
Remote users connect to the DirectAccess server by using a variety of network speeds.

The remote users report that sometimes their connection is very slow.
You need to minimize Group Policy processing across all wireless wide area network (WWAN)
connections.

Which Group Policy setting should you configure?

A. Configure Direct Access connections as a fast network connection.
B. Change Group Policy processing to run asynchronously when a slow network connection is detected.
C. Configure Group Policy slow link detection.
D. Configure wireless policy processing. Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyPropertiesHttpPort 80.
E. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration. Correct Answer: CE

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm..

Enable seamless second factor authentication Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources. To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.
QUESTION 114
Your network contains two servers named Server 1 and Server 2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both
servers have the Hyper-V server role installed. Server 1 and Server 2 are located in different offices. The
offices connect to each other by using a high-latency WAN link.

Server 1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can start VM1 on Server 2 if Server 1 fails. The solution must minimize
hardware costs.
What should you do?

A. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server2, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication for VM1.
B. on Server 1, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
C. on Server2, install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature. Modify the storage location of the VHDs for VM1.
D. From the Hyper-V Settings of Server1, modify the Replication Configuration settings. Enable replication for Vml.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference: 200-125 vce
QUESTION 115
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012. You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1. You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account. How should you configure Service1?
A. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the Log On settings.
D. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the privs parameter.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Explanation:
QUESTION 116
Your company deploys a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains a domain controller named DC10.
On DC10, the disk that contains the SYSVOL folder fails.
You replace the failed disk. You stop the Distributed File System (DFS) Replication service. You restore the SYSVOL folder.
You need to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of SYSVOL on DC10.
Which tool should you use before you start the DFS Replication service on DC10?
A. Active Directory Sites and Services
B. Ultrasound
C. Adsiedit.msc
D. Frsutil

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
How to perform a non-authoritative synchronization of DFSR-replicated SYSVOL (like “D2″ for FRS)
1. In theADSIEDIT.MSC tool modify the following distinguished name (DN) value and attribute on each of the domain controllers that you want to make non-authoritative:
CN=SYSVOL Subscription,CN=Domain System Volume,CN=DFSR- LocalSettings,CN=<the server name>,OU=Domain Controllers,DC=<domain>
msDFSR-Enabled=FALSE
2. Force Active Directory replication throughout the domain. Etc
QUESTION 117
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server 1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk (VHD) on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. New-StoragePool
B. Diskpart
C. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
D. New-StorageSubsytemVirtualDisk

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can create a VHD from either the Disk Management snap-in or the command line (diskpart). From the DiskPart command-line tool at an elevated command prompt, run the create vdisk command and specify the file (to name the file) and maximum (to set the maximum size in megabytes) parameters. The following code demonstrates how to create a VHD file at C:\vdisks\disk1.vdh with a maximum file size of 16 GB (or 16,000 MB). DiskPart Microsoft DiskPart version 6.1.7100 Copyright (C) 1999-2008 Microsoft Corporation. On computer: WIN7 DISKPART> create vdisk file=”C:\vdisks\disk1.vhd” maximum=16000
QUESTION 118
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
The disks on Server1 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You create a virtual machine on Server1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for the virtual machine.
What should you do?

A. Convert Disk 1 to a GPT disk.
B. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
C. Delete partition E.
D. Take Disk 1 offline. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: NB: added the missing exhibit http://blogs.technet.com/b/askcore/archive/2008/10/24/configuring-pass-through-disks-inhyper- v.aspx Passthrough Disk Configuration Hyper-V allows virtual machines to access storage mapped directly to the Hyper-V server without requiring the volume be configured. The storage can either be a physical disk internal to the Hyper-V server or it can be a Storage Area Network (SAN) Logical Unit (LUN) mapped to the Hyper-V server. To ensure the Guest has exclusive access to the storage, it must be placed in an Offline state from the Hyper-V server perspective. Additionally, this raw piece of storage is not limited in size so, hypothetically, it can be a multi terabyte LUN.
After storage is mapped to the Hyper-V server, it will appear as a raw volume and will be in an Offline state (depending on the SAN Policy (Figure 1-1)) as seen in Figure 1.

We stated earlier that a disk must be Offline from the Hyper-V servers’ perspective in order for the Guest to have exclusive access. However, a raw volume must first be initialized before it can be used. To accomplish this in the Disk Management interface, the disk must first be brought Online. Once Online, the disk will show as being Not Initialized (Figure 2).

Right-click on the disk and select Initialize Disk (Figure 3)

Select either an MBR or GPT partition type (Figure 4).

Once a disk is initialized, it can once again be placed in an Offline state. If the disk is not in an Offline state, it will not be available for selection when configuring the Guest’s storage. In order to configure a Pass-through disk in a Guest, you must select Attach a virtual disk later in the New Virtual Machine Wizard (Figure 5).

If the Pass-through disk will be used to boot the operating system, it must be attached to an IDE Controller. Data disks can take advantage of SCSI controllers. In Figure 6, a Passthrough disk is attached to IDE Controller 0.

Note: If the disk does not appear in the drop down list, ensure the disk is Offline in the Disk Management interface (In Server CORE, use the diskpart.exe CLI). Once the Pass-through disk is configured, the Guest can be started and data can placed on the drive. If an operating system will be installed, the installation process will properly prepare the disk. If the disk will be used for data storage, it must be prepared in the Guest operating system before data can be placed on it. If a Pass- through disk, being used to support an operating system installation, is brought Online before the Guest is started, the Guest will fail to start. When using Pass-through disks to support an operating system installation, provisions must be made for storing the Guest configuration file in an alternate location. This is because the entire Pass-through disk is consumed by the operating system installation. An example would be to locate the configuration file on another internal drive in the Hyper-V server itself. Or, if it is a cluster, the configuration file can be hosted on a separate cluster providing highly available file services. Be aware that Pass-through disks cannot be dynamically expanded. Additionally, when using Pass-through disks, you lose the capability to take snapshots, and finally, you cannot use differencing disks with Pass-through disks.
QUESTION 119
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1.
VM1 has a legacy network adapter.
You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.
C. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Add a New network adapter because the legacy network adapter doesn’t support bandwidth management.

References:
QUESTION 120
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member server named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Host1 hosts two virtual machines named VM5 and VM6. Both virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Virtual1.
On VM5, you install a network monitoring application named Monitor1. You need to capture all of the inbound and outbound traffic to VM6 by using Monitor1.
Which two commands should you run from Windows PowerShell? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter-IovWeight 1
B. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 0
C. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Source
D. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On
E. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Destination
F. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
-PortMirroring specifies the port mirroring mode for the network adapter. This can be set to None, Source, and Destination.
1.
If set to Source, a copy of every network packet it sends or receives is forwarded to a virtual network adapter configured to receive the packets.

2.
If set to Destination, it receives copied packets from the source virtual network adapter.
In this scenario, VM5 is the destination which must receive a copy of the network packets from VM6, which s the source.
Reference

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